CPC Exam Dumps - AAPC Certified Professional Coder Questions and Answers

35875 = Thrombectomy, femoral-popliteal artery

RT = Right side

75710-26 = Angiography, extremity, unilateral, professional component

69209 = Cerumen removal using irrigation

69210 = Cerumen removal using instrumentation

Different techniques on different ears require separate codes with laterality modifiers

Lesion excision codes in the CPT® codebook include the removal of the lesion along with the necessary margins and a simple (nonlayered) closure when performed. These codes do not cover intermediate or complex closures, which are reported separately if performed. The measurement for selecting the appropriate lesion excision code includes the lesion and the margins required for complete excision.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition, lesion excision guidelines.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test performed is a therapeutic drug assay to measure the concentration of vancomycin in the patient’s blood.

CPT® Code 80184 is specific for a therapeutic drug assay of vancomycin, making it the correct code to report for this test.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 80197 is used for therapeutic drug assays of another antibiotic, gentamicin, and does not apply to vancomycin.

Code 80202 is for measuring the levels of cyclosporine, another drug, and is not relevant to vancomycin.

Code 80299 is for an unlisted therapeutic drug assay, which is unnecessary since a specific code (80184) exists for vancomycin.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, specific therapeutic drug assay codes, like 80184 for vancomycin, should be used when available.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80184.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.

CPT® Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.

Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.

Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.

3. ICD-10-CM Code:

Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.

The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.

Procedure Description:

Incision in the scalp.

Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.

Removal of electrodes.

Closure of the surgical wound.

CPT® Coding:

61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient is a 19-year-old seen by his primary care physician for an annual preventive exam. His last exam was four years ago, and he has no complaints, indicating a preventive rather than problem-focused visit.

CPT® Code 99385 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 18-39. Since the patient’s last visit was four years ago, this qualifies him as a new patient by CPT® standards (a patient is considered new if they have not received any professional services from the physician within the past three years).

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 99395 is for an established patient preventive visit for ages 18-39, which does not apply here since the patient is considered new after four years.

Code 99394 is for a preventive visit for an established patient aged 12-17, which does not match the patient’s age.

Code 99384 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 12-17, which also does not apply given the patient’s age of 19.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, 99385 is appropriate for a new patient in the 18-39 age range for a preventive visit, especially when they have not seen the provider in over three years.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 99385.

In ICD-10-CM coding, an Excludes2 note under a code indicates that the condition listed in the note is not included in the definition of the code, but it does not necessarily mean they cannot coexist. This type of note means that while the conditions are distinct, it may be appropriate to report both codes if a patient has both conditions at the same time.

A. is incorrect because Excludes1, not Excludes2, indicates that certain codes should not be reported together.

C. is a description of an Excludes1 note, which implies that the two conditions should not be coded together because they cannot occur simultaneously.

D. is also a description of an Excludes1 note, which serves as a " NOT CODED HERE! " directive.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. It is acceptable to report both the code and the excluded code together, when applicable.

The operative approach is explicitlyopen surgery, so the correct CPT procedure code is44950(appendectomy; open). Code44970is thelaparoscopicappendectomy code and is not supported because the scenario states “open surgery.” For diagnosis, the physician’s final diagnosis ischronic appendicitis, which is reported withK36(other appendicitis) in the context of this question’s choices;K35.80represents acute appendicitis (unspecified acute) and does not match “chronic.” You also do not report symptom codes (nausea/vomiting/abdominal pain) once a definitive diagnosis is established and documented as the reason for the surgery, unless a guideline or scenario specifically requires them as additional reporting (this question does not). Therefore, the correct pairing is44950withK36only. CPC exam tip: always matchapproach(open vs laparoscopic) and code thefinal confirmed diagnosisrather than presenting symptoms when the definitive diagnosis is known.

In medical terminology,“-graph”refers to aninstrument used to record(or produce a record), while“-gram”refers to therecord/image produced, and“-graphy”refers to theprocess of recording. This set is frequently tested because the terms look similar. Example: anelectrocardiographis the instrument; anelectrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)is the tracing produced;electrocardiographyis the act of recording. The distractors are surgical suffixes:“-desis”typically indicates surgical binding/fusion, and“-rrhaphy”indicates surgical repair by suture. “Z-plasty” is a plastic surgery technique; “instrument used for Z-plasty” is not a standard suffix definition. For CPC-style questions, the safest approach is to memorize the trio:graph (instrument)/gram (record)/graphy (process). That pattern also helps with radiology terms (mammogram, angiography) and diagnostic testing vocabulary.