F3 Exam Dumps - CIMA Strategic Questions and Answers

The company needs to raise $40 million via a rights issue.

Current share price = $10

Rights issue at a 20% discount, so issue price =

10×(1−0.20)=10×0.8=$810 \times (1 - 0.20) = 10 \times 0.8 = \$810×(1−0.20)=10×0.8=$8

Number of new shares needed:

New shares=40m8=5 million shares\text{New shares} = \frac{40\text{m}}{8} = 5\text{ million shares}New shares=840m​=5 million shares

There are currently 20 million shares in issue, so the rights issue ratio is:

New sharesExisting shares=520=14\frac{\text{New shares}}{\text{Existing shares}} = \frac{5}{20} = \frac{1}{4}Existing sharesNew shares​=205​=41​

So, shareholders will receive 1 new share for every 4 existing shares.

Verified Answer: = B

This is exactly what statement B describes: “Dividends are paid only if no further positive NPV projects are available.” Under this policy, if the firm has many profitable projects, dividends may be low or even zero; if investment opportunities are scarce, dividends may be higher because more earnings are surplus.

Statement A is too vague: all companies must cover operational needs before paying dividends, so that does not uniquely describe a residual policy.

Statement C describes an extreme retention policy where all earnings are reinvested, which is not the same as residual dividends (where some surplus can be paid out).

Statement D refers to a stable dividend policy, where a constant or smoothly growing dividend per share is targeted, regardless of short-term earnings volatility.

Therefore, the best description of a residual dividend policy in F3 terms is B.

Advantages of a debt-funded cash offer vs a share exchange:

A. Shareholder control will remain with AB’s current shareholders.

B. More of the synergistic benefits will accrue to AB’s current shareholders.

D. EPS will increase (no dilution of equity; if synergies materialise, earnings are spread over the same number of shares).

Answer: A, B, D

CIMA F3 examines acquisition financing choices under Financial Policy Decisions and Mergers and Acquisitions, with a particular focus on how cash offers versus share exchanges affect shareholder wealth, control, gearing and earnings. The key issue from the perspective of Company AB’s shareholders is whether the method of financing enhances shareholder value without undermining the firm’s optimal capital structure.

A debt-funded cash offer involves Company AB raising debt to pay cash to the shareholders of Company DC. In contrast, a share exchange issues new equity, diluting existing ownership.

Option A is an advantage.

CIMA F3 highlights that a cash offer allows existing shareholders to retain control, because no new shares are issued. With a share exchange, ownership and voting power are diluted as DC’s shareholders become part-owners of the combined company.

Option B is an advantage.

Under a cash offer, all future synergies accrue to AB’s existing shareholders. F3 explains that with a share exchange, synergy benefits are shared with the target’s shareholders through their new equity stake. Therefore, a debt-funded cash offer concentrates the upside of synergies with the acquirer’s shareholders.

Option D is an advantage.

CIMA F3 notes that debt financing can lead to EPS growth, provided the return on the acquisition exceeds the cost of debt. Because no new equity is issued, earnings are spread over the same number of shares, and financial gearing magnifies returns to equity holders.

The remaining options are not advantages:

C (Gearing will increase) is a consequence, not an advantage. Since AB is already at its optimum capital structure, higher gearing increases financial risk.

E is incorrect; increasing WACC would reduce shareholder value, not enhance it.

Likely outcomes after two listed companies in the same industry merge:

A. Increase in customer base – yes, customers of both firms now belong to the combined entity.

B. Competition authorities step in to stop… – that usually happens before or to prevent the merger, not “after it has happened”, so not chosen.

C. Decrease in employee motivation due to internal changes – very common effect of mergers (uncertainty, restructuring).

D. Changes to supplier relationships owing to internal changes – the merged firm will have different bargaining power and processes; very likely.

E. Cost savings from synergistic benefits and economies of scale – one of the main motives for merger.

Answer: A, C, D, E

A company with no projects for 2 years and a WACC of 10% should not lock surplus cash into investments earning less than 10%, as that destroys shareholder value. The best way to maximise shareholder wealth is to return the surplus so shareholders can invest at their own required return.

✅ Answer: D. Paying the surplus cash as a dividend at the earliest opportunity.

1. Sell from domestic market

Revenue = A$100,000

Costs (given) = A$45,000

Import duty = 10% of 100,000 = A$10,000 (tax-deductible)

Profit before tax = 100,000 − 45,000 − 10,000 = A$45,000

Tax at 25% = 0.25 × 45,000 = A$11,250

Profit after tax = 45,000 − 11,250 = A$33,750

2. Sell via foreign subsidiary

Revenue = B$104,500

Costs = B$49,500

Profit before tax = 104,500 − 49,500 = B$55,000

Tax at 30% = 0.30 × 55,000 = B$16,500

Profit after tax = 55,000 − 16,500 = B$38,500

Convert to A$ at A$1 = B$1.10:

A$ profit = 38,500 / 1.10 = A$35,000

Foreign subsidiary gives the higher after-tax profit.

Answer: C. Foreign subsidiary: A$35,000

Under the Calculated Intangible Value (CIV) method, the idea is that intangibles (intellectual capital) explain the firm’s ability to earn excess returns over what would be expected from its tangible assets alone.

The value spread of $26m represents pre-tax excess earnings. CIV capitalises the after-tax excess earnings at the firm’s WACC:

Adjust value spread for tax (30%):

After-tax value spread=26×(1−0.30)=26×0.70=18.2 m\text{After-tax value spread} = 26 \times (1 - 0.30) = 26 \times 0.70 = 18.2\text{ m}After-tax value spread=26×(1−0.30)=26×0.70=18.2 m

Capitalise using WACC (8%):

CIV=18.20.08=227.5 m≈228 m\text{CIV} = \frac{18.2}{0.08} = 227.5 \text{ m} \approx 228\text{ m}CIV=0.0818.2​=227.5 m≈228 m

So the calculated intangible value (intellectual capital) of the company is $228 million, which matches Option A.

We’re comparing valuation using forecast cash flows to equity (DCF / FCFE) vs P/E multiple:

A. Using cash is theoretically superior to using profits – True. Valuation theory (and CIMA F3) say value is based on cash flows, not accounting profits. Cash flow–based valuation is more theoretically robust than P/E-based (profit-based) methods.

B. It gives an estimate of the likely shareholder value that will be created – True. Discounting forecast cash flows to equity gives a direct estimate of the present value of future benefits to shareholders, i.e. shareholder value. A P/E multiple is more of a relative/comparative shortcut.

D. It incorporates the time value of money – True. DCF explicitly discounts future cash flows back to present value at the cost of equity. A simple P/E multiple does not explicitly model timing.

Not correct:

C – DCF is more complex, not simpler.

E – You still need long-term growth assumptions (terminal value), so it does not avoid growth forecasting problems.

When valuing lease finance you discount actual cash flows only.

The cash outflow is the lease payment itself.

Because the tax regime follows the accounting treatment, the lessee gets tax relief on:

the implied interest component of the lease, and

the depreciation (straight-line) charged on the leased asset.

These tax reliefs are cash inflows (reduced tax paid) and must also be included in the discounted cash-flow calculation. Interest and depreciation themselves are not cash flows; only their associated tax shields are.

Earnings attributable to ordinary shareholders = profit after preference dividend = $500m.

Current number of shares = 1,250m.

Current EPS = 500 / 1,250 = $0.40 per share.

Share repurchase: 20% of 1,250m = 250m shares bought back and cancelled.

New number of shares = 1,250m − 250m = 1,000m shares.

Assuming profit is unchanged:

New EPS = 500 / 1,000 = $0.50 per share.

Increase in EPS = 0.50 − 0.40 = $0.10 → $0.100.