CIC Exam Dumps - CBIC Infection Control Questions and Answers

The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Study Guide (6th edition) follows the standardized surveillance methodology used for calculating central line days, which is essential for accurate reporting of central line–associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) rates. A central line day is counted for each patient who has one or more central lines in place at the time of the daily count, regardless of the number of central lines present.

Therefore, if a patient has more than one central line, the patient is still counted as one central line day, making option C the correct statement. This approach ensures consistency and comparability of CLABSI rates across units and facilities.

Option A is incorrect because tunneled central venous catheters and implanted ports are included in central line counts if they meet the definition of a central line. Option B is incorrect because a central line is counted on any day it is present, even if it has been in place for less than 24 hours. Option D is incorrect because peripheral intravenous lines are not central lines and must never be included in central line day counts.

Accurate calculation of device days is a foundational surveillance competency for infection preventionists. Understanding these definitions is critical for valid CLABSI rate calculation, benchmarking, and performance improvement and is a frequently tested concept on the CIC® exam.

Epidemiologic Investigation:

The first step in an outbreak response is to characterize cases by person, place, and time​.

Identifying common exposures (e.g., ventilators, catheters, or contaminated surfaces) helps determine the source​.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Universal contact precautions: Premature; precautions should be tailored based on transmission patterns.

C. Environmental sampling: Should be done after identifying epidemiologic links.

D. Decolonization protocols: Not routinely recommended for Acinetobacter outbreaks.

CBIC Infection Control References:

CIC Study Guide, "Epidemiologic Investigations in Outbreaks," Chapter 4​.

The Certification Study Guide (6th edition) emphasizes that restoration of a safe environment of care following construction or renovation is essential before patient occupancy. A primary concern after construction is the potential contamination and disruption of the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system, which plays a critical role in infection prevention by controlling airflow, pressure relationships, and filtration.

Inspecting and cleaning air ducts as needed—and ensuring that the ventilation system is properly balanced—helps confirm that airflow is functioning as designed, including appropriate air exchanges, pressure differentials, and filtration efficiency. The study guide highlights that construction activities can introduce dust, debris, and microorganisms (including fungal spores) into ductwork, which may subsequently be disseminated into patient care areas if not addressed. Proper HVAC verification is a key component of post-construction clearance following an Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA).

The other options are not recommended as routine first steps. Air sampling is not advised because results are difficult to interpret and do not reliably predict infection risk. Stocking supplies before environmental clearance risks contamination of clean items. Routine water testing is not required unless water system disruption or stagnation occurred and is guided by a facility’s water management program rather than construction completion alone.

CIC exam questions frequently test post-construction readiness activities, reinforcing that HVAC inspection, cleaning, and balancing are critical prerequisites for safely reopening patient care spaces.

Active tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne disease transmitted through the inhalation of droplet nuclei containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Effective infection control measures are critical during patient transport to protect healthcare workers, such as emergency medical technicians (EMTs), and to prevent community spread. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the use of appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and source control as key strategies in the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

For a patient with suspected active TB, the primary goal is to contain the infectious particles at the source (the patient) while ensuring the EMT is protected from inhalation exposure. Option C, placing an N95 respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on the EMT, is the most appropriate recommendation. The N95 respirator on the patient serves as source control by filtering the exhaled air, reducing the dispersion of infectious droplets. However, fitting an N95 respirator on the patient may be challenging, especially in an emergency setting or if the patient is uncooperative, so a surgical mask is often used as an alternative source control measure. For the EMT, a surgical mask provides a basic barrier but does not offer the same level of respiratory protection as an N95 respirator. The CDC recommends that healthcare workers, including EMTs, use an N95 respirator (or higher-level respiratory protection) when in close contact with a patient with suspected or confirmed active TB, unless an airborne infection isolation room is available, which is not feasible during transport.

Option A is incorrect because placing a surgical mask on both the patient and the EMT does not provide adequate respiratory protection for the EMT. Surgical masks are not designed to filter small airborne particles like those containing TB bacilli and do not meet the N95 standard required for airborne precautions. Option B is impractical and unnecessary, as placing an N95 respirator on both the patient and the EMT is overly restrictive and logistically challenging, especially for the patient during transport. Option D reverses the PPE roles, placing the surgical mask on the patient (insufficient for source control) and the N95 respirator on the EMT (appropriate for protection but misaligned with the need to control the patient’s exhalation). The CBIC and CDC guidelines prioritize source control on the patient and respiratory protection for the healthcare worker, making Option C the best fit.

This recommendation is consistent with the CBIC’s emphasis on implementing transmission-based precautions (CDC, 2005, Guideline for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings) and the use of PPE tailored to the mode of transmission, as outlined in the CBIC Practice Analysis (2022).

Ventilator-associated events (VAEs) are complications that occur in patients receiving mechanical ventilation and include conditions such as ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), pulmonary edema, and atelectasis. The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Study Guide (6th edition) emphasizes that patient positioning plays a critical role in preventing aspiration and subsequent respiratory complications in mechanically ventilated patients.

Maintaining patients in a supine position, particularly during transport, increases the risk of aspiration of gastric contents and oropharyngeal secretions. Aspiration is a well-recognized contributing factor to the development of VAEs because it can lead to infection, inflammation, and worsening oxygenation. The Study Guide recommends maintaining the head of the bed elevated (generally 30–45 degrees) whenever feasible, including during care activities and transport, to reduce aspiration risk.

The other options listed—daily sedation vacation, daily weaning assessment, and daily oral care with chlorhexidine—are evidence-based prevention strategies that are part of ventilator care bundles. These interventions are designed to reduce the duration of mechanical ventilation, improve pulmonary function, and decrease microbial colonization, all of which lower the risk of VAEs rather than contribute to them.

Therefore, supine positioning during transport is the most likely factor contributing to an increase in ventilator-associated events and represents a deviation from recommended infection prevention practices.

The correct answer is B, "They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years," as this is the appropriate recommendation for the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), healthcare professionals with routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis, such as those in clinical microbiology laboratories, are at increased risk of meningococcal disease due to potential aerosol or droplet exposure during culture handling. The quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY) is recommended for such individuals, with a primary series (one dose for those previously vaccinated or two doses 2 months apart for unvaccinated individuals) and a booster dose every 5 years if the risk persists (CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021). However, for laboratory workers with ongoing exposure, the ACIP specifies a booster interval of every 5 years from the last dose, but this is often interpreted in practice as aligning with the 5-7 year range depending on risk assessment and institutional policy. Since the healthcare professional received the vaccine 8 years ago and works in a high-risk setting, a booster is due, with the 7-year threshold being a practical midpoint for this scenario (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).

Option A (they are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years) is close but slightly premature based on the 8-year interval, though it reflects the general 5-year booster guideline for high-risk groups; the 7-year option better matches the specific timeframe. Option C (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required) is incorrect because ongoing exposure necessitates regular boosters, unlike the general population where a single dose may suffice after adolescence. Option D (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years) applies to the general adult population without ongoing risk (e.g., post-adolescence vaccination), not to laboratory workers with continuous exposure, where the interval is shorter.

The recommendation for a booster aligns with CBIC’s emphasis on protecting healthcare personnel from occupational exposure to communicable diseases, ensuring compliance with evidence-based immunization practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This supports the prevention of meningococcal disease outbreaks in healthcare settings.

The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Study Guide (6th edition) emphasizes the importance of applying Spaulding’s classification to determine appropriate cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization levels for medical devices based on their intended use. According to this framework, rectal probes are classified as semi-critical devices because they come into contact with mucous membranes. Semi-critical devices require at least high-level disinfection after thorough cleaning.

An enzymatic solution, as listed in option C, is not a disinfectant. Enzymatic detergents are designed solely for cleaning, meaning they help remove organic material such as blood, mucus, and feces, but they do not kill microorganisms. Using an enzymatic solution alone for rectal probes is therefore inadequate and represents an improper disinfection practice, making this the scenario that clearly requires a protocol change.

Option A is acceptable because diaphragm fitting rings are noncritical devices that contact intact skin and may be safely processed using high-level disinfection. Option B is appropriate because blood pressure cuffs are noncritical items and can be disinfected using low- to intermediate-level disinfectants such as sodium hypochlorite. Option D is also appropriate, as cryosurgical probes are semi-critical devices and 2% glutaraldehyde is an accepted high-level disinfectant.

Recognizing the distinction between cleaning versus disinfection and applying the correct level of processing is a core competency for infection preventionists and a frequently tested concept on the CIC® exam.

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The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Study Guide (6th edition) emphasizes that the most important criterion when selecting a disinfectant is the intended purpose for which it will be used. Disinfectants must be chosen based on the type of surface or item, the level of microbial kill required, and the risk of infection associated with the use of that item. This approach aligns with Spaulding’s classification system, which categorizes items as critical, semi-critical, or noncritical and guides the required level of disinfection or sterilization.

Understanding the purpose of the disinfectant ensures that the selected product is effective against the appropriate microorganisms and suitable for the clinical application, whether it involves environmental surfaces, noncritical patient care equipment, or semi-critical devices. For example, a low-level disinfectant may be sufficient for noncritical items, whereas high-level disinfection is required for semi-critical devices. Selecting a disinfectant without first defining its purpose can result in ineffective infection prevention or unnecessary exposure to harsh chemicals.

Option A is incorrect because disinfectants are not intended for use on living tissue; antiseptics serve that role. Option C is secondary—while active ingredients matter, they are evaluated after determining intended use. Option D is important for safety and regulatory compliance but does not drive appropriateness of clinical application.

For the CIC® exam, recognizing that intended use is the foundational decision point in disinfectant selection is essential for evidence-based infection prevention practice.

Before initiating airborne precautions, the infection preventionist must first confirm the clinical suspicion of active TB.

Step-by-Step Justification:

Confirming Active TB:

A positive tuberculin skin test (TST) alone does not indicate active disease​.

A review of chest X-ray, symptoms, and risk factors is needed.

Medical Record Review:

Past TB history, imaging, and sputum testing are key to diagnosis​.

Not all TST-positive patients require isolation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Contact the roommate's physician to initiate TST: Premature, as no confirmation of active TB exists yet.

C. Report findings to Employee Health for staff follow-up: Should occur only after TB confirmation.

D. Transfer to airborne isolation immediately: Airborne isolation is necessary only if active TB is suspected based on clinical findings​.

CBIC Infection Control References:

When an infection preventionist (IP) is informed of a measles outbreak in a nearby community, the immediate priority is to protect healthcare workers and patients from potential exposure, particularly in a healthcare setting where vulnerable populations are present. Working with Occupational Health, the IP must follow a structured approach to mitigate the risk of transmission, guided by principles from the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) and public health guidelines. Let’s evaluate each option to determine the first priority:

A. Isolate employees who have recently traveled to areas with measles outbreaks: Isolating employees who may have been exposed to measles during travel is an important infection control measure to prevent transmission within the facility. However, this action assumes that exposure has already occurred and requires identification of affected employees first. Without knowing the immunity status of the workforce, this step is reactive rather than preventive and cannot be the first priority.

B. Reassign employees who are pregnant from caring for patients with suspected measles: Reassigning pregnant employees is a protective measure due to the severe risks measles poses to fetuses (e.g., congenital rubella syndrome risks, though measles itself is more about maternal complications). This action is specific to a subset of employees and depends on identifying patients with suspected measles, which may not yet be confirmed. It is a secondary step that follows assessing overall immunity and exposure risks, making it inappropriate as the first priority.

C. Verify that employees in high-risk exposure areas of the facility have adequate immunity to measles: Verifying immunity is the foundational step in preventing measles transmission in a healthcare setting. Measles is highly contagious, and healthcare workers in high-risk areas (e.g., emergency departments, pediatric wards) are at increased risk of exposure. The CBIC and CDC recommend ensuring that all healthcare personnel have documented evidence of measles immunity (e.g., two doses of MMR vaccine, laboratory evidence of immunity, or prior infection) as a primary infection control strategy during outbreaks. This step allows the IP to identify vulnerable employees, implement targeted interventions, and comply with occupational health regulations. It is the most proactive and immediate priority when an outbreak is reported in the community.

D. Set up a mandatory vaccination clinic in collaboration with Occupational Health and local public health partners: Establishing a vaccination clinic is a critical long-term strategy to increase immunity and control the outbreak. However, this requires planning, resource allocation, and coordination, which take time. It is a subsequent step that follows verifying immunity status to identify those who need vaccination. While important, it cannot be the first priority due to its logistical demands.

The first priority is C, as verifying immunity among employees in high-risk areas establishes a baseline to prevent transmission before reactive measures (e.g., isolation, reassignment) or broader interventions (e.g., vaccination clinics) are implemented. This aligns with CBIC’s focus on proactive risk assessment and occupational health safety during infectious disease outbreaks, ensuring a rapid response to protect the healthcare workforce and patients.

CBIC Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) Core Competency Model (updated 2023), Domain III: Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases, which prioritizes immunity verification during outbreaks.

CBIC Examination Content Outline, Domain IV: Environment of Care, which includes ensuring employee immunity as part of outbreak preparedness.

CDC Guidelines for Measles Prevention (2023), which recommend verifying healthcare worker immunity as the initial step during a measles outbreak.