PSE-Strata-Pro-24 Exam Dumps - Paloalto Networks PSE-Strata Professional Questions and Answers

When evaluating Palo Alto Networks products, prospective customers need tools that can help them assess compatibility, performance, and value within their existing architecture. The following tools are the most relevant:

Why "Proof of Concept (POC)" (Correct Answer A)?A Proof of Concept is a hands-on evaluation that allows the customer to deploy and test Palo Alto Networks products directly within their environment. This enables them to assess real-world performance, compatibility, and operational impact.

Why "Security Lifecycle Review (SLR)" (Correct Answer C)?An SLR provides a detailed report of a customer’s network security posture based on data collected during a short evaluation period. It highlights risks, vulnerabilities, and active threats in the customer’s network, demonstrating how Palo Alto Networks solutions can address those risks. SLR is a powerful tool for justifying the value of a product in the customer’s architecture.

Why "Ultimate Test Drive" (Correct Answer D)?The Ultimate Test Drive is a guided hands-on workshop provided by Palo Alto Networks that allows prospective customers to explore product features and capabilities in a controlled environment. It is ideal for customers who want to evaluate products without deploying them in their production network.

Why not "Policy Optimizer" (Option B)?Policy Optimizer is used after a product has been deployed to refine security policies by identifying unused or overly permissive rules. It is not designed for pre-deployment evaluations.

Why not "Expedition" (Option E)?Expedition is a migration tool that assists with the conversion of configurations from third-party firewalls or existing Palo Alto Networks firewalls. It is not a tool for evaluating the suitability of products in the customer’s architecture.

The appropriate CDSS subscription to inspect and mitigate suspicious DNS traffic is Advanced DNS Security. Here’s why:

Advanced DNS Security protects against DNS-based threats, including domain generation algorithms (DGA), DNS tunneling (often used for data exfiltration), and malicious domains used in attacks. It leverages machine learning to detect and block DNS traffic associated with command-and-control servers or other malicious activities. In this case, unusually high DNS traffic to an unfamiliar IP address is likely indicative of a DNS-based attack or malware activity, making this the most suitable service.

Option A: Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on identifying and blocking sophisticated threats in network traffic, such as exploits and evasive malware. While it complements DNS Security, it does not specialize in analyzing DNS-specific traffic patterns.

Option B: Advanced WildFire focuses on detecting and preventing file-based threats, such as malware delivered via email attachments or web downloads. It does not provide specific protection for DNS-related anomalies.

Option C: Advanced URL Filtering is designed to prevent access to malicious or inappropriate websites based on their URLs. While DNS may be indirectly involved in resolving malicious websites, this service does not directly inspect DNS traffic patterns for threats.

Option D (Correct): Advanced DNS Security specifically addresses DNS-based threats. By enabling this service, the customer can detect and block DNS queries to malicious domains and investigate anomalous DNS behavior like the high traffic observed in this scenario.

How to Enable Advanced DNS Security:

Ensure the firewall has a valid Advanced DNS Security license.

Navigate to Objects > Security Profiles > Anti-Spyware.

Enable DNS Security under the "DNS Signatures" section.

Apply the Anti-Spyware profile to the relevant Security Policy to enforce DNS Security.

Protecting web servers from advanced threats like SQL injection, command injection, XSS attacks, and IIS exploits requires a solution capable of deep packet inspection, behavioral analysis, and inline prevention of zero-day attacks. The most effective solution here is Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) combined with PAN-OS 11.x.

Why "Advanced Threat Prevention and PAN-OS 11.x" (Correct Answer B)?Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) enhances traditional threat prevention by using inline deep learning models to detect and block advanced zero-day threats, including SQL injection, command injection, and XSS attacks. With PAN-OS 11.x, ATP extends its detection capabilities to detect unknown exploits without relying on signature-based methods. This functionality is critical for protecting web servers in scenarios where a dedicated WAF is unavailable.

ATP provides the following benefits:

Inline prevention of zero-day threats using deep learning models.

Real-time detection of attacks like SQL injection and XSS.

Enhanced protection for web server platforms like IIS.

Full integration with the Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW).

Why not "Threat Prevention and PAN-OS 11.x" (Option A)?Threat Prevention relies primarily on signature-based detection for known threats. While it provides basic protection, it lacks the capability to block zero-day attacks using advanced methods like inline deep learning. For zero-day SQL injection and XSS attacks, Threat Prevention alone is insufficient.

Why not "Threat Prevention, Advanced URL Filtering, and PAN-OS 10.2 (and higher)" (Option C)?While this combination includes Advanced URL Filtering (useful for blocking malicious URLs associated with exploits), it still relies on Threat Prevention, which is signature-based. This combination does not provide the zero-day protection needed for advanced injection attacks or XSS vulnerabilities.

Why not "Advanced WildFire and PAN-OS 10.0 (and higher)" (Option D)?Advanced WildFire is focused on analyzing files and executables in a sandbox environment to identify malware. While it is excellent for identifying malware, it is not designed to provide inline prevention for web-based injection attacks or XSS exploits targeting web servers.

When planning a firewall deployment with SSL/TLS decryption enabled, it is crucial to consider the additional processing overhead introduced by decrypting and inspecting encrypted traffic. Here are the details for each statement:

Why "SSL decryption traffic amounts vary from network to network" (Correct Answer A)?SSL decryption traffic varies depending on the organization’s specific network environment, user behavior, and applications. For example, networks with heavy web traffic, cloud applications, or encrypted VoIP traffic will have more SSL/TLS decryption processing requirements. This variability means each deployment must be properly assessed and sized accordingly.

Why "Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) ephemeral key exchange algorithms such as Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (DHE) and Elliptic-Curve Diffie-Hellman Exchange (ECDHE) consume more processing resources than Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithms" (Correct Answer C)?PFS algorithms like DHE and ECDHE generate unique session keys for each connection, ensuring better security but requiring significantly more processing power compared to RSA key exchange. When decryption is enabled, firewalls must handle these computationally expensive operations for every encrypted session, impacting performance and sizing requirements.

Why not "Large average transaction sizes consume more processing power to decrypt" (Option B)?While large transaction sizes can consume additional resources, SSL/TLS decryption is more dependent on the number of sessions and the complexity of the encryption algorithms used, rather than the size of the transactions. Hence, this is not a primary best practice consideration.

Why not "Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) certificate authentication method consumes more resources than Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA), but ECDSA is more secure" (Option D)?This statement discusses certificate authentication methods, not SSL/TLS decryption performance. While ECDSA is more efficient and secure than RSA, it is not directly relevant to sizing considerations for firewall deployments with decryption enabled.

To configure GlobalProtect to authenticate users from multiple SAML identity providers (IdPs), the correct approach involves creating multiple authentication profiles, one for each IdP. Here's the analysis of each option:

Option A: GlobalProtect with multiple authentication profiles for each SAML IdP

GlobalProtect allows configuring multiple SAML authentication profiles, each corresponding to a specific IdP.

These profiles are associated with the GlobalProtect portal or gateway. When users attempt to authenticate, they can be directed to the appropriate IdP based on their domain or other attributes.

This is the correct approach to enable authentication for users from multiple IdPs.

Option B: Multiple authentication mode Cloud Identity Engine authentication profile for use on the GlobalProtect portals and gateways

The Cloud Identity Engine (CIE) can synchronize identities from multiple directories, but it does not directly support multiple SAML IdPs for a shared GlobalProtect setup.

This option is not applicable.

Option C: Authentication sequence that has multiple authentication profiles using different authentication methods

Authentication sequences allow multiple authentication methods (e.g., LDAP, RADIUS, SAML) to be tried in sequence for the same user, but they are not designed for handling multiple SAML IdPs.

This option is not appropriate for the scenario.

Option D: Multiple Cloud Identity Engine tenants for each business unit

Deploying multiple CIE tenants for each business unit adds unnecessary complexity and is not required for configuring GlobalProtect to authenticate users to multiple SAML IdPs.

This option is not appropriate.

Palo Alto Networks AIOps for NGFW is a cloud-delivered service that leverages telemetry data and machine learning (ML) to provide proactive operational insights, best practice recommendations, and issue prevention.

Why "It is offered in two license tiers: a free version and a premium version" (Correct Answer B)?AIOps for NGFW is available in two tiers:

Free Tier: Provides basic operational insights and best practices at no additional cost.

Premium Tier: Offers advanced capabilities, such as AI-driven forecasts, proactive issue prevention, and enhanced ML-based recommendations.

Why "It uses telemetry data to forecast, preempt, or identify issues, and it uses machine learning (ML) to adjust and enhance the process" (Correct Answer C)?AIOps uses telemetry data from NGFWs to analyze operational trends, forecast potential problems, and recommend solutions before issues arise. ML continuously refines these insights by learning from real-world data, enhancing accuracy and effectiveness over time.

Why not "It is offered in two license tiers: a commercial edition and an enterprise edition" (Option A)?This is incorrect because the licensing model for AIOps is based on "free" and "premium" tiers, not "commercial" and "enterprise" editions.

Why not "It forwards log data to Advanced WildFire to anticipate, prevent, or identify issues, and it uses machine learning (ML) to refine and adapt to the process" (Option D)?AIOps does not rely on Advanced WildFire for its operation. Instead, it uses telemetry data directly from the NGFWs to perform operational and security analysis.

Advanced WildFire is Palo Alto Networks' cloud-based malware analysis and prevention solution. It determines whether files are malicious by executing them in a sandbox environment and observing their behavior. To address the customer's concern about the file categorization, the systems engineer must provide evidence of the file's behavior. Here’s the analysis of each option:

Option A: Review the threat logs for information to provide to the customer

Threat logs can provide a summary of events and verdicts for malicious files, but they do not include the detailed behavior analysis needed to convince the customer.

While reviewing the logs is helpful as a preliminary step, it does not provide the level of proof the customer needs.

This option is not sufficient on its own.

Option B: Use the WildFire Analysis Report in the log to show the customer the malicious actions the file took when it was detonated

WildFire generates an analysis report that includes details about the file's behavior during detonation in the sandbox, such as network activity, file modifications, process executions, and any indicators of compromise (IoCs).

This report provides concrete evidence to demonstrate why the file was flagged as malicious. It is the most accurate way to assure the customer that WildFire's decision was based on observed malicious actions.

This is the best option.

Option C: Open a TAG ticket for the customer and allow support engineers to determine the appropriate action

While opening a support ticket is a valid action for further analysis or appeal, it is not a direct way to assure the customer of the current WildFire verdict.

This option does not directly address the customer’s request for immediate proof.

This option is not ideal.

Option D: Do nothing because the customer will realize Advanced WildFire is right

This approach is dismissive of the customer's concerns and does not provide any evidence to support WildFire's decision.

This option is inappropriate.

Zero-day malware attacks are sophisticated threats that exploit previously unknown vulnerabilities or malware signatures. To provide protection against such attacks, the appropriate Cloud-Delivered Security Service subscription must be included.

Why "Advanced WildFire" (Correct Answer C)?Advanced WildFire is Palo Alto Networks’ sandboxing solution that identifies and prevents zero-day malware. It uses machine learning, dynamic analysis, and static analysis to detect unknown malware in real time.

Files and executables are analyzed in the cloud-based sandbox, and protections are shared globally within minutes.

Advanced WildFire specifically addresses zero-day threats by dynamically analyzing suspicious files and generating new signatures.

Why not "AI Access Security" (Option A)?AI Access Security is designed to secure SaaS applications by monitoring and enforcing data protection and compliance. While useful for SaaS security, it does not focus on detecting or preventing zero-day malware.

Why not "Advanced Threat Prevention" (Option B)?Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on detecting zero-day exploits (e.g., SQL injection, buffer overflows) using inline deep learning but is not specifically designed to analyze and prevent zero-day malware. ATP complements Advanced WildFire, but WildFire is the primary solution for malware detection.

Why not "App-ID" (Option D)?App-ID identifies and controls applications on the network. While it improves visibility and security posture, it does not address zero-day malware detection or prevention.