PTCE Exam Dumps - PTCB CPhT Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Nasonexis anasal corticosteroidused to treatallergic rhinitis. Thegeneric name is mometasone furoate.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Mometasone furoate→Correct.Theactive ingredient in Nasonex.❌B. Loteprednol etabonate→ Incorrect.A corticosteroid, but used for eye inflammation.❌C. Desloratadine→ Incorrect.An antihistamine, not a steroid.❌D. Fluticasone→ Incorrect.Similar corticosteroid, but the generic for Flonase, not Nasonex.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book (Nasonex and Generics)

PTCB Exam: Generic & Brand Name Medications

Before dispensing a prescription, pharmacy technicians and pharmacists must ensure that it iscomplete, clear, and unambiguousto avoid medication errors.

Medication:Lisinopril

Strength:20 mg (Clear)

Route:PO (by mouth) (Clear)

Directions:Take 1 tab PO q8h (every 8 hours)❌(Needs Clarification)

Quantity:30 tablets (Clear)

Refills:12 (Needs verification but is not the main issue)

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitorused for hypertension and heart failure.

Standard dosing is once daily (q24h), not every 8 hours (q8h).

A frequency of q8h (three times daily) is unusual and could be a prescribing error.

Pharmacists must verify with the prescriber before dispensing.

(A) Directions for use✅Correct – "q8h" is incorrect for lisinopril and needs clarification.

(B) Medication strength❌Incorrect – "20 mg" is a standard strength for lisinopril.

(C) Route of administration❌Incorrect – "PO" (by mouth) is correct.

(D) Number of refills❌Incorrect – While 12 refills is uncommon for chronic medications, it is not the primary issue.

Lisinopril Prescribing Information (FDA): https://www.accessdata.fda.gov

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – High-Alert Medications:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Prescription Processing & Clarification

Analysis of the Prescription:Why the Directions Need Clarification:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

To determine the required volume in milliliters (mL) to administer 120 mg of furosemide using a stock concentration of 40 mg/2 mL, follow these steps:

Ordered dose =120 mg

Stock concentration =40 mg per 2 mL

Step 1: Identify Given ValuesStep 2: Set Up a ProportionUse the formula:

Volume required (mL)=(Ordered dose (mg)Stock concentration (mg/mL))\text{Volume required (mL)} = \left( \frac{\text{Ordered dose (mg)}}{\text{Stock concentration (mg/mL)}} \right)Volume required (mL)=(Stock concentration (mg/mL)Ordered dose (mg)​)

First, determine the concentration inmg per mL:

40 mg2 mL=20 mg/mL\frac{40 \text{ mg}}{2 \text{ mL}} = 20 \text{ mg/mL}2 mL40 mg​=20 mg/mL

Now, calculate the required volume:

120 mg20 mg/mL=6 mL\frac{120 \text{ mg}}{20 \text{ mg/mL}} = 6 \text{ mL}20 mg/mL120 mg​=6 mL

Thus, the correct answer is6 mL.

Final Answer: C. 6 mLPharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Order Interpretation & Dosage Calculations)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

American Pharmacists Association (APhA) Pharmacy Technician Guide

DEA requires allcontrolled substance prescriptionsto include thedate of issueas per21 CFR 1306.05(a).

Other required elements:

Patient’s full name and address

Drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity

Directions for use

Prescriber’s name, address,DEA number, and signature

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Act;21 CFR 1306.05.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The FDA Orange BookprovidesTherapeutic Equivalence (TE) codesto indicate whether a generic drug isequivalentto a brand-name drug.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. The Orange Book→Correct.Liststherapeutic equivalence (TE) codesfor FDA-approved generics.❌A. Remington→ Incorrect.Pharmacy reference book, not used for TE codes.❌C. SDSs→ Incorrect.Used for chemical safety, not drug equivalence.❌D. Package insert→ Incorrect.Does not contain TE codes.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book

PTCB Exam: Therapeutic Equivalence

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking Protocols:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Ahazardous drug spill kitisrequiredunderUSP <800>, which outlinessafe handling practices for hazardous drugs (HDs). The kit must contain:

Disposable scoop and scraper(to safely collect broken glass and contaminated material).

Absorbent pads or spill control pillows(for liquid spills).

Chemotherapy-rated gloves, gown, goggles, and mask(for protection).

A hazardous waste disposal bag(to properly dispose of contaminated materials).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. A disposable scoop for glass fragments→Correct.Adisposable scoop is essentialto safely removehazardous drug spills containing broken glass.❌A. Permeable, disposable protective garments→ Incorrect. PPE for hazardous drug spills must beimpermeable(e.g., coated gowns).❌B. Sufficient supplies to absorb a spill of about 10,000 mL→ Incorrect.Most spill kits are designed for smaller spills (≤1000 mL), not massive industrial spills.❌C. Reusable absorbent sponges or toweling→ Incorrect.All absorbent materials must be disposable to prevent contamination.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020 Update)

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Management

According tofederal law,a reverse distributor must issue a DEA Form 222 (or electronic equivalent) when a pharmacy requests the destruction of a Schedule II controlled substance.

Reverse distributorshandle the return and disposal ofexpired, damaged, or unusable controlled substances.

DEA Form 222 (or CSOS, the electronic equivalent) is required for Schedule II drugs.

Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (e.g., Norco, Vicodin)is aSchedule II controlled substance, requiringDEA Form 222for reverse distribution.

A. Acetaminophen with codeine❌→Schedule III

Does not require DEA Form 222; instead, DEA Form 41 is used for disposal.

C. Promethazine with codeine❌→Schedule V

Lower abuse potential; does not require DEA Form 222.

D. Pseudoephedrine with ibuprofen❌→Not a controlled substance

Pseudoephedrine is regulated under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), not the DEA controlled substance schedules.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA)– Confirms thatSchedule II drugs require DEA Form 222 for reverse distribution.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers controlled substances and reverse distribution requirements.

DEA Diversion Control Division Guidelines– Listshydrocodone as a Schedule II drug requiring Form 222 for disposal.

Understanding DEA Form 222 and Reverse Distribution:Why is Hydrocodone with Acetaminophen the Correct Answer?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for Immunization:https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/index.html

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS): https://vaers.hhs.gov/

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines: https://www.immunize.org/technical-support/administering-vaccines/

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations: https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/immunization-safety

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Lot numbers are required for drug recalls and tracking purposes.

Prescription numbers are pharmacy-specific and not on manufacturer packaging.

????Reference:FDA Drug Labeling Requirements, USP Manufacturing Guidelines.