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350-701 Exam Dumps - Cisco CCNP Security Questions and Answers

Question # 4

What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

Options:

A.

It is the password for the certificate that is needed to install it with.

B.

It provides the server information so a certificate can be created and signed

C.

It provides the certificate client information so the server can authenticate against it when installing

D.

It is the certificate that will be loaded onto the server

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Question # 5

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

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Question # 6

Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

water holing

C.

DDoS

D.

buffer overflow

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Question # 7

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

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Question # 8

What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.) The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.

Options:

A.

Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification

B.

Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.

C.

Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.

D.

Deploy a separate eDirectory server: the client IP address is recorded in this server

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Question # 9

An organization wants to provide visibility and to identify active threats in its network using a VM. The

organization wants to extract metadata from network packet flow while ensuring that payloads are not retained

or transferred outside the network. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella Cloud

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PCM

D.

Cisco Umbrella On-Premises

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Question # 10

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

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Question # 11

An organization has a Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud deployment in their environment. Cloud logging is working as expected, but logs are not being received from the on-premise network, what action will resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure security appliances to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Configure security appliances to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Deploy a Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud sensor on the network to send data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

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Question # 12

What are two advantages of using Cisco Any connect over DMVPN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It provides spoke-to-spoke communications without traversing the hub

B.

It allows different routing protocols to work over the tunnel

C.

It allows customization of access policies based on user identity

D.

It allows multiple sites to connect to the data center

E.

It enables VPN access for individual users from their machines

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Question # 13

Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline

posture node?

Options:

A.

RADIUS Change of Authorization

B.

device tracking

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

VLAN hopping

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Question # 14

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

Options:

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

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Question # 15

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

ETHOS detection engine

C.

SPERO detection engine

D.

TETRA detection engine

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Question # 16

Which two parameters are used for device compliance checks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

endpoint protection software version

B.

Windows registry values

C.

DHCP snooping checks

D.

DNS integrity checks

E.

device operating system version

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Question # 17

A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

Options:

A.

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

B.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.

C.

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

D.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

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Question # 18

Which statement describes a serverless application?

Options:

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

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Exam Code: 350-701
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
Last Update: Jun 14, 2025
Questions: 688
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