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156-315.82 Exam Dumps - Checkpoint CCSE Questions and Answers

Question # 4

Select the default network address for sync interface in ElasticXL.

Options:

A.

192.2.2.0/24

B.

192.2.0.0/16

C.

192.0.2.0/24

D.

192.2.0.0/24

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Question # 5

Which Management Server process receives an install command when installing a policy?

Options:

A.

The CPM process is involved in installing a policy to the gateway.

B.

The CPWD process invokes the install function.

C.

The FWM process is involved in installing the policy.

D.

The FWD process is involved in installing a policy.

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Question # 6

What must be taken into consideration in some scenarios with Manual NAT rules?

Options:

A.

You must edit the $FWDIR/conf/local.arp file on the Management Server with vi.

B.

In Global Properties, under NAT, you must activate “Automatic ARP Configuration,” which is not activated by default.

C.

In Global Properties, under NAT, you must activate “Merge Manual Proxy ARP Configuration,” and you must configure Manual Proxy ARP via Gaia Portal.

D.

You must add a manual NAT rule between two automatically created NAT rules.

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Question # 7

What is the role of a Single Management Object, SMO, in ElasticXL?

Options:

A.

Each member of an ElasticXL Cluster connects to the Security Management Server on the server’s virtual IP address as defined in the Check Point Host object called the Single Management Object, SMO.

B.

The Single Management Object, SMO, provides a single IP address for use in management communication and policy installation, simplifying the management of the ElasticXL Cluster.

C.

An object created for each individual ElasticXL Cluster member using its respective internal IP address is called a Single Management Object, SMO, for the member gateway.

D.

The Single Management Object, SMO, applies to a cluster of Management Servers using ElasticXL.

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Question # 8

In SmartEvent Settings & Policy, Severity contains which options?

Options:

A.

Informational, Warning, Low, Medium, High

B.

Low, Medium, High

C.

Low, Medium, High, Critical

D.

Informational, Low, Medium, High, Critical

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Question # 9

What should be upgraded first in Advanced Upgrade Method?

Options:

A.

Dedicated Log Server

B.

Secondary Management Server

C.

Primary Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Question # 10

What is a key feature of the Compliance Blade?

Options:

A.

The Blade uses Continuous Compliance Monitoring technology to examine the Management Server and configuration settings.

B.

The Blade uses Check Point Compatibility Mode technology to examine the Security Gateways, policies, and configuration settings.

C.

The Blade uses Continuous Compliance Monitoring technology to check the integrity of the PostgreSQL database on the Security Management Server.

D.

The Blade uses Continuous Compliance Monitoring technology to examine the Security Gateways, policies, and configuration settings.

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Question # 11

Which process is responsible for the code generation and compilation of Legacy Dump files?

Options:

A.

FWM

B.

CPM

C.

Stateful Compiler

D.

Inspect Engine

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Question # 12

What is true regarding the number of involved Management Servers in a Management High Availability environment?

Options:

A.

You can have one Primary Management Server and one or more Secondary Management Server(s).

B.

You can have multiple Primary Management Servers in a Load Sharing Mode HA environment.

C.

You can have one Primary Management Server and one Secondary Management Server.

D.

You can have multiple Primary Management Servers behind a Load Balancer, such as the Logical Server, but in this scenario, you can only use Round Robin as the distribution mechanism.

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Question # 13

What network is automatically assigned to the Sync bonding group in an ElasticXL Cluster?

Options:

A.

192.168.2.0/24

B.

192.0.2.0/24

C.

192.20.0.0/24

D.

169.254.0.0/24

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Exam Code: 156-315.82
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R82
Last Update: May 30, 2026
Questions: 128
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