220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Questions and Answers

Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.

Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds—not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. " Cellular " refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.

Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.

Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.

A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.

The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process.

Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary—RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy. Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails. Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.

Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.

A red status light on a server or storage-array drive bay commonly indicates that the installed hard drive has failed or has entered a fault state. Enterprise storage bays use indicator lights to show drive activity, identification, rebuilding, predictive failure, or complete failure. Although the exact colour pattern can vary by manufacturer, a persistent red or amber fault indicator normally requires the technician to check the storage controller and replace the affected drive according to the system’s hot-swap and RAID procedures. A failing power supply would normally activate an indicator on the power-supply module rather than an individual storage bay. A drive missing from the operating system could result from a controller, cable, configuration, or drive problem, but the red bay light more directly identifies a physical drive fault. Slow read/write performance alone does not normally activate a solid failure indicator.

Most meeting or conferencing applications default to the built-in laptop camera unless manually changed. When an external camera is connected, the software may continue to use the default device, resulting in a blank preview, especially if the internal camera is disabled, covered, or malfunctioning. CompTIA A+ stresses verifying correct device selection when peripherals are installed.

Selecting the correct camera source is a quick, non-invasive test that resolves the issue in the majority of cases. The technician should open the application’s video settings and choose the external webcam from the camera dropdown menu.

Replacing the camera (B) is premature without confirming configuration. Updating software (C) is beneficial but will not resolve a simple input-selection error. Checking the cable (D) is a valid step if the preview still fails after selecting the device.

Thus, the correct next step is to select the proper camera source.

Refresh rate is the most relevant display attribute for reducing perceived motion blur and improving motion smoothness in fast-paced video or gaming. Refresh rate, measured in hertz, indicates how many times the display can update the image each second. A 120Hz or 144Hz display can present more individual frames per second than a 60Hz display, producing smoother movement and making rapidly moving objects easier to follow. Response time also affects ghosting because it measures how quickly pixels change from one state to another, but refresh rate is the broader attribute governing how frequently new frames are displayed. Resolution controls the number of pixels and therefore image detail, not motion smoothness. Color accuracy determines how faithfully colours are reproduced and does not directly reduce blur. For the best result, a high refresh rate should be paired with a low pixel-response time.

A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.

This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies.

A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.

CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer.

Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.

In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables administrators to enforce controls on enterprise devices, such as restricting apps, ensuring compliance, and remotely managing security policies.

Why Not B (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user access but does not control device configurations.

Why Not C (VPN): VPN secures communication but does not enforce device controls.

Why Not D (SSL): SSL secures data in transit but does not provide device management.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management concepts​.

A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments.

Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure—perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.

A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.

Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.

Clicking and grinding noises indicate mechanical drive failure.

SMART data provides insights into the health and status of drives, helping identify failing components in the RAID array.

Why Not A (Run a magnet): This would damage drives.

Why Not B (Check if one drive is not level): Physical leveling is irrelevant.

Why Not D (Check OS logs): OS logs may provide limited information for RAID arrays.

Why Not E (Update RAID controller firmware): While important, it does not diagnose drive failure.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting​.

For a device to communicate on a network, it must have a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway configured.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network configuration:

“A valid IP address, subnet mask, and gateway are required for network connectivity and communication outside the local network.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Configuration

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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If a computer can access internal network resources but cannot reach external websites, the most likely issue is a DNS configuration problem. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking troubleshooting methodology, DNS should be one of the first items checked when internet access fails but local connectivity remains intact.

DNS translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. If DNS settings are incorrect, missing, or pointing to an invalid server, the computer will be unable to resolve website names even though it has network connectivity. Since other users on the same network can access the internet, the issue is isolated to the individual workstation.

Replacing the network cable is unnecessary because internal connectivity is already working. Restarting the DHCP server would impact all users, not just one. Adjusting firewall rules on the router would affect the entire network rather than a single computer.

CompTIA emphasizes starting with least disruptive and most likely causes when troubleshooting. Verifying DNS settings aligns with this best-practice approach.

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a high-performance drive interface commonly found in enterprise environments and servers due to its reliability and speed. While SATA is more common in consumer systems, SAS is specifically designed for mission-critical applications, offering features like full-duplex operation and compatibility with SATA drives.

TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.

Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.

Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.

Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration​.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows IT departments to enforce compliance controls, such as restricting the installation of unapproved software, on laptops and mobile devices.

Why Not A (EDR): Endpoint Detection and Response focuses on detecting and mitigating security threats, not compliance controls.

Why Not B (VPN): Virtual Private Networks provide secure connections but do not enforce software installation policies.

Why Not D (SaaS): Software as a Service refers to software delivery models and does not enforce compliance controls.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management and security​.