220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Questions and Answers

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows IT departments to enforce compliance controls, such as restricting the installation of unapproved software, on laptops and mobile devices.

Why Not A (EDR): Endpoint Detection and Response focuses on detecting and mitigating security threats, not compliance controls.

Why Not B (VPN): Virtual Private Networks provide secure connections but do not enforce software installation policies.

Why Not D (SaaS): Software as a Service refers to software delivery models and does not enforce compliance controls.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management and security​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Official Study Guide)

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the technology used by organizations to centrally configure, secure, and control mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets.

The CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives specify that MDM solutions allow administrators to implement and enforce security and usage policies, including:

Application control (whitelisting and blacklisting)

Restricting installation of unapproved applications

Enforcing corporate compliance requirements

Remotely managing mobile device configurations

This directly applies to the scenario: the company wants to prevent users from installing unapproved apps on corporate tablets.

MDM enforces this through:

App whitelisting → only approved apps can be installed

App blacklisting → specific apps are blocked

Locked-down app stores → only corporate-approved app stores or catalogs

This is exactly the function MDM is designed for in enterprise mobile security and management.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

B. ACL (Access Control List)

ACLs control network or file-system access, such as allowing or denying IP addresses, ports, or file permissions.

They cannot control app installation behavior on mobile devices.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management)

DRM protects digital content from unauthorized copying or distribution.

It does not restrict which applications can be installed on a mobile device.

D. PAM (Privileged Access Management)

PAM controls administrative or privileged accounts in enterprise environments.

It is unrelated to app-installation restrictions on tablets.

NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – Network services and protocols:

“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6

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DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the service used to automatically assign IP addresses to network hosts. It dynamically manages the distribution of IP addresses and configuration details (like subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers), ensuring no two devices are assigned the same address on the network.

Option B (DNS): Incorrect. DNS translates domain names into IP addresses but does not assign them.

Option C (LDAP): Incorrect. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining directory services, such as user information and permissions.

Option D (SMTP): Incorrect. SMTP is used for sending and receiving email, not for IP address assignment.

Desktop computers most commonly use DIMM modules (Dual Inline Memory Module) for system memory. DIMMs are the standard full-size RAM sticks installed in desktop motherboard memory slots and are available in modern DDR generations such as DDR4 and DDR5. CompTIA A+ Core 1 expects you to distinguish common form factors: desktops use DIMM, while laptops typically use SO-DIMM (Small Outline DIMM).

The other options are either specialized memory types or not the typical “type” used to describe desktop installation. Static refers to SRAM (static RAM), which is used for CPU cache and other internal high-speed buffers, not for installing system RAM modules in a desktop. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) memory is used mainly in servers/workstations where data integrity is critical and requires motherboard/CPU support; it is not the most likely choice for a typical desktop upgrade. Registered (buffered) memory is also primarily for servers and compatible platforms, improving stability with large memory configurations but not common in standard desktops. Therefore, the best answer for typical desktop RAM installation is DIMM.

Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It's four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.

Option A (1920x1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.

Option B (2048x1080):DCI 2K used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.

Option D (7680x4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.7: Compare and contrast display technologies and their features.

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APrivate Cloudis operated solely for a single organization. It ishosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance often hosted in theorganization’s own local data center.

Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.

Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Cloud storage platforms—such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox—use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.

Synchronization allows users to:

Modify files offline and have them sync once online

Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices

Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients

Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution

A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.

Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.

The correct solution for this scenario is Mobile Device Management (MDM). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device security and management objectives, MDM is specifically designed to manage, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices used to access corporate resources.

MDM solutions allow organizations to require employees to install management software on their smartphones before accessing corporate email. One of the key features of MDM is data separation, often referred to as containerization, which keeps corporate data isolated from personal data on the same device. This ensures that company information remains secure while still allowing employees to use their devices for personal purposes.

Encryption alone protects data but does not enforce separation or centralized control. Network access control (NAC) restricts which devices can connect to a network but does not manage data on the device itself. Endpoint protection focuses on malware prevention and threat detection, not policy enforcement or data separation.

CompTIA emphasizes MDM as the primary solution for BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) and corporate mobile access scenarios, making it the most suitable and complete answer for this requirement.

C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):

Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.

This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.

Incorrect Options:

A. Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.

B. Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.

D. Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost-effective solution for this scenario.

Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.