220-1201 Exam Dumps - CompTIA A+ Questions and Answers

In Wi-Fi, the 2.4GHz band contains 14 total channels (depending on region), but only channels 1, 6, and 11 are considered non-overlapping in most countries. CompTIA A+ highlights the importance of selecting these channels to minimize interference, especially in environments with multiple wireless networks or access points.

The 2.4GHz band is narrower than 5GHz, causing adjacent channels to overlap significantly. Using channels 1, 6, and 11 prevents overlap and reduces signal interference, improving performance and stability.

5GHz (B) has many non-overlapping channels and does not use the 1/6/11 scheme. The 6GHz band (C) is part of Wi-Fi 6E and uses entirely different channel planning. The 60GHz band (D) supports short-range high-speed connections like WiGig, not traditional Wi-Fi channels.

Therefore, the 2.4GHz band is the correct answer.

System overheating is the most likely cause of repeated shutdowns when the battery still has sufficient charge. Modern laptops monitor CPU, GPU, and internal system temperatures. If temperatures exceed safe limits, the system may first reduce processor performance through thermal throttling and then shut down automatically to prevent permanent component damage. Common causes include blocked ventilation openings, accumulated dust, a failed cooling fan, dried thermal compound, or using the laptop on a surface that obstructs airflow. Malware, corrupted RAM, and outdated drivers can cause instability, crashes, or performance problems, but they are less directly associated with protective power shutdowns. The technician should inspect airflow, verify fan operation, check internal temperatures, and clean the cooling system before replacing other hardware. Repeated shutdowns during demanding workloads provide especially strong evidence of a thermal problem.

Amodular power supplyallows a technician toconnect only the power cables that are needed, reducing clutter and improving airflow. This is ideal when aiming for a clean build withminimal visible internal cables.

Option A (SATA drive connections):Still require both power and data cables, adding to cable count.

Option B (Liquid cooling):May reduce some bulk from large air coolers, but adds tubing and still needs cabling.

Option D (Wireless NIC):Adds wireless capability but has no relation to internal cabling cleanliness.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, apply the appropriate PC configuration.

Virtualization is the most suitable solution for maintaining a legacy application that is currently running on multiple physical servers. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, virtualization allows physical servers to be consolidated into virtual machines (VMs) that run on a single or reduced number of physical hosts while preserving the original operating systems and application environments.

Legacy applications often rely on older operating systems, specific hardware configurations, or outdated dependencies. Virtualization enables the organization to encapsulate the legacy environment, reducing hardware dependency and simplifying maintenance until the application can be fully retired. This approach also lowers power consumption, hardware costs, and physical space requirements while improving manageability and backup options.

A SAN (Storage Area Network) provides shared storage but does not address application hosting or server consolidation. FaaS (Function as a Service) is a cloud-native, event-driven computing model that requires application redesign and is unsuitable for legacy systems. A configuration management platform is used to manage and automate system configurations but does not replace physical servers or host applications.

CompTIA highlights virtualization as a key strategy for supporting legacy systems, improving flexibility, and extending the lifespan of applications during transition periods.

The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.

RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks in the array.

RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1 uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity, allowing recovery from only one failed drive.

For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.

CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability are priorities.

Data centers and high-performance servers prioritize stability and fault tolerance. CompTIA A+ identifies ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM as the standard memory used in such environments. ECC RAM automatically detects and corrects single-bit memory errors, preventing system crashes, data corruption, and downtime—critical requirements for servers running mission-critical workloads.

ECC memory is commonly paired with registered/buffered modules (RDIMM) for additional stability, but ECC itself is the defining feature required in data center environments. Non-ECC, unbuffered memory is used in consumer desktops where minor memory errors pose minimal risk.

Single-channel memory (B) is simply a configuration and does not imply reliability. Unbuffered RAM (C) is not used in enterprise-grade systems because it lacks error correction and electrical stabilization. RDIMM (D) includes buffering but may come with or without ECC; however, ECC is the key requirement highlighted by the question.

Therefore, the correct answer is ECC RAM.

GigabitEthernet interfaces are capable of 1000 Mbps, but the actual link speed is determined by negotiation between the switch port and the connected device, along with the quality/type of cabling. In this configuration, Sales and CustomerService ports are manually set to speed 1000 and duplex full, which forces gigabit operation. However, the Marketing port is set to speed auto and duplex auto. If the connected endpoint, patch cable, wall jack, or intermediate wiring for Marketing cannot support gigabit (or has a termination problem), the link may auto-negotiate down to 100 Mbps or 10 Mbps. That creates a clear performance bottleneck for that department compared to the other two ports running at 1 Gbps.

The IP addresses shown are consistent within the same /24 network and do not indicate an obvious addressing problem, so “incorrect IP addresses” is unlikely. “Subnet error” is not supported by the given config, and Cat 5e is generally capable of gigabit at typical distances, so “outdated” cable is not the best explanation from these choices. The most likely cause is Marketing running at 10/100 due to negotiation.

An IP address in the 169.254.x.x range indicates the device has assigned itself an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing). This happens when the device is configured to obtain an IP address automatically but cannot reach a DHCP server to receive a valid IP configuration for the local network. With an APIPA address, the device can sometimes communicate only with other devices in the same 169.254.x.x range on the local link, but it typically will not have a correct default gateway or DNS server settings. Without a valid gateway, the device cannot route traffic to the internet, which explains why it cannot access internet websites.

Option C is therefore the most likely cause: the DHCP assignment cannot be obtained due to issues such as a disconnected network cable, disabled Wi-Fi, DHCP server outage, VLAN misconfiguration, or a blocked DHCP request/response on the network.

Option B (DNS failure) could prevent name resolution, but it would not by itself cause an APIPA address. Option A suggests a static configuration problem, yet APIPA usually appears when the device is set to DHCP, not static. Option D could also break internet access, but it would not specifically result in a 169.254 address on the client.

An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously, greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high-volume tasks.

A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the “each page must be scanned individually” issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.

The most effective first step is to analyse the printer’s event logs. The alert light confirms that the printer has detected a condition, but the local display does not provide enough information to identify it. Printer event logs, embedded web-management pages, or print-server logs can reveal specific error codes, component warnings, consumable problems, overheating events, memory errors, or recurring mechanical faults. This allows the technician to identify the probable cause before replacing components or changing configurations. A paper jam should be checked when the printer reports a jam or fails to move paper, but the scenario only states that it pauses after jobs. Driver problems would more likely affect particular computers or document output, while other evidence indicates the printer itself is generating the alert. A network-cable problem would normally interrupt communication rather than create a post-print alert condition.

Cable modems supplied by ISPs connect to the coaxial wall outlet using an F-type connector. CompTIA A+ specifies that F-type connectors are threaded coaxial connectors used in broadband cable internet, cable TV, and some satellite systems. They attach to RG-6 or RG-59 coaxial cable and provide a secure, shielded connection to the cable provider’s infrastructure.

The cable modem requires this coaxial uplink to receive downstream and upstream signals from the ISP before converting them into Ethernet on the LAN side.

LC (B) is for fiber optic connectors, not coaxial. RJ45 (C) is an Ethernet connector and is used on the LAN side of the modem—not on the wall uplink. Lightning (D) is an Apple connector and irrelevant to networking hardware.

Thus, the correct connector for the ISP cable modem uplink is F-type.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A firewall allows for detailed traffic control, including blocking outbound connections while allowing inbound ones. This is contrary to typical security setups, but it can be configured via advanced firewall rules.

When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.

The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device—such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive—containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.

A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.

Thus, the failed component is the HDD.

An IDE hard drive uses a Molex connector for power. This 4-pin connector is a standard for older drives.

Why Not A (F type): F type connectors are used for coaxial cables in video and internet applications.

Why Not B (SC): SC connectors are for fiber optic cables.

Why Not D (Lightning): Lightning connectors are for Apple devices.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and connectors​.