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350-701 Exam Dumps - Cisco CCNP Security Questions and Answers

Question # 184

Where are individual sites specified to be block listed in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Application settings

B.

Security settings

C.

Destination lists

D.

Content categories

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Question # 185

Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

antispam

C.

antivirus

D.

encryption

E.

DLP

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Question # 186

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

Options:

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

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Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit.

=== Cisco Secure Endpoint - Detection Event ===

Endpoint : LAB-WKSTN-047 User: user1

Policy Group : Lab-Workstations Mode: Audit

Engine : ETHOS (fuzzy fingerprint)

Disposition : Malicious

File : C:\Users\user1\AppData\Local\Temp\svchost32.exe

SHA256 : 3a9f2c1d...e881b4a7

Parent Process: winword.exe

Threat Name : W32.Trojan.GenericKD.Agent

Retrospective : Previously UNKNOWN

Disposition changed to MALICIOUS at 09:31:55 UTC

File Activity : Created, Executed

Network : TCP outbound - > 91.205.188.47:4444

DNS query: c2-update.pharmadomain.ru

Quarantine : NOT quarantined (Audit mode active)

A security analyst at a pharmaceutical company is reviewing a Cisco Secure Endpoint malware-detection alert triggered on a laboratory workstation. The analyst observes the event data above. Which two things are occurring? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The antivirus engine update interval on workstation LAB-WKSTN-047 is too infrequent.

B.

The endpoint is running in Audit mode; the file was detected but not quarantined.

C.

The endpoint is running in Audit mode; the file was detected and quarantined.

D.

The file executed, was spawned by winword.exe, and opened an outbound connection to external command-and-control infrastructure.

E.

The parent file winword.exe is on a custom application allow list, permitting the malicious file to execute.

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Question # 188

A network engineer is enabling RADIUS CoA on a fleet of Cisco Catalyst switches so that Cisco ISE can quarantine compromised endpoints in real time. To uniquely target an active session for disconnect or reauthorization, Cisco ISE must include IETF attribute 31 to identify the endpoint. Which configuration action must be performed on Cisco ISE to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure the Calling-Station-ID attribute for CoA session identification.

B.

Apply the Message-Authenticator attribute for endpoint session lookup.

C.

Implement the Acct-Session-ID attribute for matching the active session.

D.

Use the NAS-Port-ID attribute for the CoA disconnect request.

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Question # 189

For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

LDAP

C.

subordinate CA

D.

SCP

E.

HTTP

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Question # 190

During a recent security audit a Cisco IOS router with a working IPSEC configuration using IKEv1 was flagged for using a wildcard mask with the crypto isakmp key command The VPN peer is a SOHO router with a dynamically assigned IP address Dynamic DNS has been configured on the SOHO router to map the dynamic IP address to the host name of vpn sohoroutercompany.com In addition to the command crypto isakmp key Cisc425007536 hostname vpn.sohoroutercompany.com what other two commands are now required on the Cisco IOS router for the VPN to continue to function after the wildcard command is removed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ip host vpn.sohoroutercompany.eom < VPN Peer IP Address >

B.

crypto isakmp identity hostname

C.

Add the dynamic keyword to the existing crypto map command

D.

fqdn vpn.sohoroutercompany.com < VPN Peer IP Address >

E.

ip name-server < DNS Server IP Address >

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Question # 191

Which two parameters are used to prevent a data breach in the cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DLP solutions

B.

strong user authentication

C.

encryption

D.

complex cloud-based web proxies

E.

antispoofing programs

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Question # 192

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

Options:

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Question # 193

Which DoS attack uses fragmented packets in an attempt to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

teardrop

B.

smurf

C.

LAND

D.

SYN flood

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Question # 194

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AES is less secure than 3DES.

B.

AES is more secure than 3DES.

C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

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Question # 195

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

Server patching

Application maintenance

Data center security

Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

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Question # 196

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

Options:

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

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Question # 197

What is the role of Cisco Umbrella Roaming when it is installed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

To protect the endpoint against malicious file transfers

B.

To ensure that assets are secure from malicious links on and off the corporate network

C.

To establish secure VPN connectivity to the corporate network

D.

To enforce posture compliance and mandatory software

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Question # 198

A network engineer is configuring NetFlow top talkers on a Cisco router Drag and drop the steps in the process from the left into the sequence on the right

Options:

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Exam Code: 350-701
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0)
Last Update: Oct 27, 2026
Questions: 801
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