SY0-701 Exam Dumps - CompTIA Security+ Questions and Answers

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

An insider threat is a security risk that originates from within the organization, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner, who has authorized access to the organization’s data and systems. An insider threat can be malicious, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging sensitive data, or unintentional, such as falling victim to phishing or social engineering. An insider threat can cause significant damage to the organization’s reputation, finances, operations, and legal compliance. The user’s activity of logging in remotely after hours and copying large amounts of data to a personal device is an example of a malicious insider threat, as it violates the organization’s security policies and compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References = Insider Threats – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 3.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 133.

To mitigate the risk of sensitive data being exfiltrated from the environment, the IT manager should implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution. DLP monitors and controls the movement of sensitive data, ensuring that unauthorized transfers are blocked and potential data breaches are prevented.

XDR (Extended Detection and Response) is useful for threat detection across multiple environments but doesn't specifically address data exfiltration.

SPF (Sender Policy Framework) helps prevent email spoofing, not data exfiltration.

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) also addresses email security and spoofing, not data exfiltration​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Key escrow is the process of storing encryption keys (or copies of them) with a trusted third party so data can be recovered if the primary decryption key is lost. In Security+ SY0-701, escrow is emphasized as a required safeguard for organizations that rely heavily on encryption, especially for regulated data or systems requiring guaranteed recoverability.

A CSR (A) is a Certificate Signing Request and does not store keys. Salting (B) is used with hashing to prevent password attacks and does not assist in data recovery. A root of trust (C) ensures secure hardware initialization but does not store backup decryption keys.

Key escrow directly addresses scenarios where encryption keys are misplaced, corrupted, deleted, or lost due to employee departure or system failure. Without escrow, encrypted data could become permanently inaccessible.

Thus, the correct answer is Escrow, the only mechanism specifically designed to allow recovery when decryption keys are unavailable.

The log entries show repeated attempts to access directories using patterns such as ../, which is a common directory traversal attack technique. Directory traversal (or path traversal) aims to access files and directories outside the web server's root directory by manipulating file paths. The ../ sequence is used to move up one directory level, which attackers exploit to try and retrieve sensitive files.

Full Disk Encryption (FDE) ensures that all data on the drive is encrypted, preventing unauthorized access even if the device is lost.

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Allowing risky protocols like SMB and RDP from the internet to a controlled VLAN is commonly done to create a honeynet, a deliberately vulnerable network environment used to attract attackers and study their behaviors without risking production systems.

Building a file-sharing site (A) or preparing for a pentest (B) typically wouldn't require exposing SMB and RDP broadly. SASE integration (C) focuses on cloud security access and doesn't involve opening such protocols indiscriminately.

Honeynets are described as a deception technology in the Security Architecture domain【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

When new email servers are deployed, organizations must update their SPF (Sender Policy Framework) records to list the new servers as authorized senders. If the SPF DNS record does not include the new IP addresses, recipient mail systems cannot verify the legitimacy of the messages, causing them to be flagged as spam or rejected.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies SPF as a key email authentication mechanism responsible for preventing:

Email spoofing

Unauthorized sender impersonation

False spam detection

Domain reputation issues

CNAME (A) maps domain aliases but does not authenticate email. SMTP (B) is the mail protocol and does not influence spam classification. DLP (C) prevents data leakage, not spam filtering.

Updating the SPF record resolves legitimacy issues by informing receiving mail servers that the new email servers are trusted.

Thus, the correct answer is D: SPF.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides both preventive and detective security controls. Security+ SY0-701 describes HIPS as a host-level security solution that monitors system behavior, blocks malicious activity, and logs suspicious events.

It functions as a preventive control (B) because it can:

Stop malware execution

Block unauthorized changes

Prevent exploit attempts

Enforce endpoint protection policies

It is also a detective control (F) because it can:

Record attempted attacks

Identify suspicious activities

Generate alerts for security teams

Directive controls (A) refer to policies; physical controls (C) refer to locks and barriers; corrective controls (D) restore systems after an incident; compensating controls (E) substitute for missing primary controls.

Therefore, the two correct answers are B (Preventive) and F (Detective).

Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:

The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.

The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.

The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.

The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.

The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.

The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.

The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.

Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.

References = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/

https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing

 A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company’s legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.

The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:

Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.

Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.

Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.

AnAPI (B)or Application Programming Interface is the best option when you want toautomate data exchangebetween systems. APIs provide structured, secure, and efficient ways for systems to communicate and are widely used in automation and orchestration tasks.

SOAR (A)is used for broader security orchestration and may use APIs under the hood but is more complex.

SFTP (C)is for manual/automated file transfers.

RDP (D)is for remote desktop access, not data automation.

This is referenced inDomain 1.5: Explain the importance of automation and orchestration in cybersecurityunder“Application programming interfaces (APIs).”