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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 154

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

Options:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

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Question # 155

What is the MOST effective approach to promote ethical decision-making in a global organization?

Options:

A.

Embed risk averse culture within the organization.

B.

Ensure ethics considerations are made in the hiring process.

C.

Ensure code of conduct is incorporated into organization-wide awareness training

D.

Require annual metrics related to ethics be reported.

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Question # 156

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 157

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 158

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s software testing program?

Options:

A.

Average time to complete software test cases

B.

Percentage of applications with defined business cases

C.

Number of incidents resulting from software changes

D.

Percentage of staff completing software development training

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Question # 159

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 160

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Question # 161

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure software engineers test patches before release to the production environment?

Options:

A.

To detect incompatibilities that might disrupt the operation

B.

To provide assurance that deployed patches have been properly authorized

C.

To understand how long it will take to deploy the patch

D.

To support availability by authorizing the release of the patch at the appropriate time

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Question # 162

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

Options:

A.

Reduce internal threats

B.

Reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

C.

Eliminate risk associated with personnel

D.

Ensure new hires have the required skills

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Question # 163

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 164

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Question # 165

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Question # 166

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a root cause analysis following an incident?

Options:

A.

To reduce incident response times defined in SLAs

B.

To satisfy senior management expectations for incident response

C.

To ensure risk has been reduced to acceptable levels

D.

To minimize the likelihood of future occurrences

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Question # 167

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 168

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

Options:

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

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Question # 169

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Question # 170

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Question # 171

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Question # 172

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers ' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 173

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

Options:

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Question # 174

A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

Options:

A.

Monitor the databases for abnormal activity

B.

Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating

C.

Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities

D.

Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is

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Question # 175

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to assess the risk associated with outsourcing IT processes?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor ' s penetration test results

B.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs) periodically

C.

Benchmark industry peers using the same vendor services

D.

Analyze gaps between the current and future state

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Question # 176

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to consolidate the results of risk assessments across multiple operating units?

Options:

A.

Implement a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system.

B.

Update departmental risk registers with items from the central risk register.

C.

Aggregate operating unit risk registers to a central risk register.

D.

Perform additional risk assessments and create an enterprise risk matrix.

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Question # 177

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization ' s risk awareness program is ineffective.

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Question # 178

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

Options:

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

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Question # 179

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

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Question # 180

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

Options:

A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

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Question # 181

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Question # 182

When assessing the maturity level of an organization ' s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

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Question # 183

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Question # 184

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Question # 185

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a business process owner to enable effective IT risk management?

Options:

A.

Delivering risk reports in a timely manner

B.

Escalating risk to senior management

C.

Prioritizing risk for appropriate response

D.

Collecting and analyzing risk data

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Question # 186

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

Options:

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 187

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

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Question # 188

An IT manager insists on accepting an IT risk associated with a key business process due to the limited resources available to mitigate. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action?

Options:

A.

Seek additional resources for risk mitigation.

B.

Document the business rationale for risk acceptance.

C.

Validate the decision with the process owner

D.

Conduct a follow-up business process analysis.

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Question # 189

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

Options:

A.

Vendor ' s information security officer

B.

Customer ' s data privacy officer

C.

Customer ' s data owner

D.

Vendor ' s application owner

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Question # 190

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

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Question # 191

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of the three lines model for risk management?

Options:

A.

The model shows how to effectively apply oversight and monitoring for the purpose of mitigating risk.

B.

The model states that only employees are responsible for IT risk management.

C.

The model provides clear delineation of roles and responsibilities for managing IT risk.

D.

The model stipulates that senior management is responsible for IT risk management activities.

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Question # 192

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 193

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Question # 194

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

Options:

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Question # 195

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

Options:

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

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Question # 197

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Question # 198

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Question # 199

Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity?

Options:

A.

Implementing homomorphic encryption.

B.

Establishing an employee feedback channel.

C.

Establishing a dedicated compliance function.

D.

Implementing an incentive program.

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Question # 200

A risk practitioner has been asked to propose a risk acceptance framework for an organization. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the risk practitioner to address in the framework?

Options:

A.

Consistent forms to document risk acceptance rationales

B.

Acceptable scenarios to override risk appetite or tolerance thresholds

C.

Individuals or roles authorized to approve risk acceptance

D.

Communication protocols when a risk is accepted

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Question # 201

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

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Question # 202

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

Options:

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 203

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Oct 27, 2026
Questions: 1975
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