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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 154

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 155

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Question # 156

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

Options:

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

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Question # 157

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

Options:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

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Question # 158

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 159

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Question # 160

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

Options:

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Question # 161

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 162

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Question # 163

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Question # 164

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Question # 165

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 166

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Question # 167

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 168

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

Options:

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Question # 169

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Question # 170

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Question # 171

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

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Question # 172

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor’s AI technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Regular security updates

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Adequate vendor support

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Question # 173

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Question # 174

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 175

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

Options:

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 176

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 177

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

Options:

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Question # 178

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

Options:

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 179

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

Options:

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Question # 180

An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.

B.

Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.

C.

Review software license to determine the vendor's responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.

D.

Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.

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Question # 181

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

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Question # 182

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

Options:

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Question # 183

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

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Question # 184

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 185

Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:

Options:

A.

mapping residual risk with cost of controls

B.

comparing against regulatory requirements

C.

comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.

D.

understanding the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 186

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

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Question # 187

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

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Question # 188

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

Options:

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

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Question # 189

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

Options:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Question # 190

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

Options:

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Question # 191

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

Options:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

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Question # 192

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

Options:

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 193

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

Options:

A.

Reduce internal threats

B.

Reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

C.

Eliminate risk associated with personnel

D.

Ensure new hires have the required skills

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Question # 194

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 195

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 196

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Question # 197

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Question # 198

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 199

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Question # 200

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

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Question # 201

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 202

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Question # 203

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

Options:

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Jun 27, 2025
Questions: 1641
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