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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 354

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization ' s secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Question # 355

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 356

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

Options:

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

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Question # 357

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

Options:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

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Question # 358

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Question # 359

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

Options:

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 360

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Question # 361

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Question # 362

An organization plans to provide specific cloud security training for the IT team to help manage risks associated with cloud technology. This response is considered risk:

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Acceptance

D.

Deferral

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Question # 363

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Right to audit

D.

Data obfuscation

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Question # 364

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to misaligned outcomes from enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Overreliance on third-party service providers.

B.

Incompatibility of EA artifacts with business objectives.

C.

Immature data reference model.

D.

Insufficient EA documentation of current state.

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Question # 365

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Question # 366

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

Options:

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Question # 367

While reviewing an organization ' s monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Question # 369

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

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Question # 370

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

Options:

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Question # 371

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Question # 372

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Question # 373

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Question # 374

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

Options:

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

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Question # 375

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

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Question # 376

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

Options:

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

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Question # 377

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 378

The FIRST step for a startup company when developing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be to identify:

Options:

A.

Current vulnerabilities

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Critical business processes

D.

A suitable alternate site

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Question # 379

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

Options:

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

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Question # 380

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Question # 381

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

Options:

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 382

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

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Question # 383

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

Options:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

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Question # 384

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?

Options:

A.

Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.

B.

Conduct a compliance check against standards.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Measure the change in inherent risk.

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Question # 385

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 386

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization ' s risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 387

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

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Question # 388

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 389

Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?

Options:

A.

Data as a Service (DaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 390

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Question # 391

Which of the following would have the GREATEST impact on reducing the risk associated with the implementation of a big data project?

Options:

A.

Data processing

B.

Data quality

C.

Data scalability

D.

Data governance

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Question # 392

During an organization ' s simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

Options:

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

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Question # 393

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 394

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization ' s risk tolerance.

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Question # 395

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 396

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

Options:

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Question # 397

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

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Question # 398

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management ' s PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Question # 399

A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 400

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 401

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Question # 402

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 403

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

Options:

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Oct 27, 2026
Questions: 1975
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