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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 54

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization ' s end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 55

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

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Question # 56

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern related to using pseudonymization for the protection of an organization’s processed privacy data?

Options:

A.

Authorized users can access personal data.

B.

Updates to privacy data content are not allowed.

C.

Individual data subjects can be re-identified.

D.

Other information about the data subject can be revealed.

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Question # 58

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

Options:

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Question # 59

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization ' s IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 60

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a well-defined risk event?

Options:

A.

Forensic investigations include chain-of-custody requirements

B.

Impact analyses include annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Incident response plans include recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Critical systems include key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 61

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the organization ' s risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management ' s intent

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Question # 62

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

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Question # 63

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 64

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 65

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor ' s public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor ' s responsibilities are defined in the contract.

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Question # 66

A risk practitioner ' s BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

Aligned with risk management capabilities.

B.

Based on industry trends.

C.

Related to probable events.

D.

Mapped to incident response plans.

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Question # 67

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit to an organization that is using threat intelligence?

Options:

A.

Timely insight into potential threats

B.

Automated vulnerability management

C.

Accurate threat information

D.

Verification of threat information

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Question # 68

An organization has received notification that it is a potential victim of a cybercrime that may have compromised sensitive customer data. What should be The FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan.

B.

Determine the business impact.

C.

Conduct a forensic investigation.

D.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 69

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

Options:

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 70

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 71

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

B.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

C.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

D.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

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Question # 72

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Question # 73

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for Internet of Things (loT) devices that are accessed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Identity and access management (IAM)

B.

Comprehensive patching program

C.

Source code reviews

D.

Adoption of a defense-in-depth strategy

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Question # 74

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Question # 75

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 76

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

Options:

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 77

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

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Question # 78

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on backup policies for a system supporting a critical process?

Options:

A.

Impact of threats to the process

B.

Resource requirements of the process

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 79

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 80

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

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Question # 81

When implementing an IT risk management program, which of the following is the BEST time to evaluate current control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Before defining a framework

B.

During the risk assessment

C.

When evaluating risk response

D.

When updating the risk register

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Question # 82

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 83

An organization has outsourced a critical process involving highly regulated data to a third party with servers located in a foreign country. Who is accountable for the confidentiality of this data?

Options:

A.

Third-party data custodian

B.

Data custodian

C.

Regional office executive

D.

Data owner

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Question # 84

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

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Question # 85

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization ' s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 86

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 87

Which of the following is MOST likely to increase the likelihood or impact of an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Addition of an emerging technology into an existing process.

B.

Change from a quantitative to a qualitative risk analysis methodology.

C.

Introduction of controls based on recent audit findings.

D.

Increased use of risk acceptance by senior management.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Question # 89

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

Options:

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

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Question # 90

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

Options:

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

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Question # 91

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Question # 92

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 93

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department ' s recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise ' s business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 94

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 95

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

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Question # 96

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

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Question # 97

Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk factors

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Current risk rating

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Question # 98

In the context of the three lines model, which of the following is responsible for providing assurance to senior management and the governing body through independent and objective reviews?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors

B.

Risk owners

C.

Regulators

D.

Risk management functions

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Question # 99

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

Options:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Question # 100

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 101

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a business process owner to enable effective IT risk management?

Options:

A.

Delivering risk reports in a timely manner

B.

Escalating risk to senior management

C.

Prioritizing risk for appropriate response

D.

Collecting and analyzing risk data

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Question # 102

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization ' s risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 103

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Jun 13, 2026
Questions: 1960
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