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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 304

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

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Question # 305

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 306

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

Options:

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 307

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 308

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

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Question # 309

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Question # 310

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

Options:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

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Question # 311

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Question # 312

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

Options:

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

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Question # 313

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

Options:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

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Question # 314

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

Options:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 315

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Question # 316

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

Options:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Question # 317

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 318

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

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Question # 319

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 320

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Question # 321

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the

progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Project manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

IT risk manager

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Question # 322

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Question # 323

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 324

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

Options:

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Question # 325

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

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Question # 326

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

Options:

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 327

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Question # 328

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 329

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

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Question # 330

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

Options:

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 331

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

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Question # 332

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 333

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 334

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Question # 335

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 336

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

Options:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 337

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Question # 338

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

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Question # 339

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

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Question # 340

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

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Question # 341

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Question # 342

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Question # 343

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

Options:

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Question # 344

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 345

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Question # 346

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

Options:

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Question # 347

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 348

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 349

Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

Options:

A.

ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

B.

enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

C.

monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D.

providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

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Question # 350

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 351

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

Options:

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Question # 352

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

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Question # 353

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 1641
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