CISA Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

 The only thing that can be provided by asymmetric encryption is nonrepudiation. Nonrepudiation is the ability to prove that a message or transaction was originated or authorized by a specific party. Asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. If a message is encrypted with the sender’s private key, only the sender’s public key can decrypt it. This proves that the message was sent by the sender and not by anyone else. This is called digital signature and it provides nonrepudiation. Asymmetric encryption can also provide information privacy by encrypting a message with the receiver’s public key, so that only the receiver’s private key can decrypt it. However, information privacy can also be provided by symmetric encryption, which uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt messages. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.21

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 2, Lesson 12

An IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives is a set of principles, guidelines, and practices that help an organization to ensure that its IT investments support its strategic goals, deliver value, manage risks, and optimize resources. One of the benefits of implementing such a framework is that it enables an effective IT portfolio management, which is the process of selecting, prioritizing, monitoring, and evaluating the IT projects and services that comprise the IT portfolio. An IT portfolio is a collection of IT assets, such as applications, infrastructure, data, and capabilities, that are aligned with the business needs and objectives. An IT portfolio management helps an organization to achieve the following outcomes:

Align the IT portfolio with the business strategy and vision

Balance the IT portfolio among different types of investments, such as innovation, growth, maintenance, and compliance

Optimize the IT portfolio performance, value, and risk

Enhance the IT portfolio decision-making and governance

Improve the IT portfolio communication and transparency

Therefore, an inadequate IT portfolio management is a major concern that can be addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. An inadequate IT portfolio management can result in the following issues:

Misalignment of the IT portfolio with the business needs and expectations

Imbalance of the IT portfolio among competing demands and priorities

Suboptimal use of the IT resources and capabilities

Lack of visibility and accountability of the IT portfolio outcomes and impacts

Poor communication and collaboration among the IT portfolio stakeholders

The other possible options are:

Inaccurate business impact analysis (BIA): A BIA is a process of identifying and assessing the potential effects of a disruption or disaster on the critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps an organization to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for its business continuity plan. A BIA is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may use some inputs from the IT portfolio management. Therefore, an inaccurate BIA is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives.

Inadequate IT change management practices: IT change management is a process of controlling and managing the changes to the IT environment, such as hardware, software, configuration, or documentation. IT change management helps an organization to minimize the risks and disruptions caused by the changes, ensure the quality and consistency of the changes, and align the changes with the business requirements. IT change management is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may support some aspects of the IT portfolio management. Therefore, inadequate IT change management practices are not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives.

Lack of a benchmark analysis: A benchmark analysis is a process of comparing an organization’s performance, processes, or practices with those of other organizations or industry standards. A benchmark analysis helps an organization to identify its strengths and weaknesses, set realistic goals and targets, and implement best practices for improvement. A benchmark analysis is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may provide some insights for the IT portfolio management. Therefore, lack of a benchmark analysis is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. References: 1: What is Portfolio Management? | Smartsheet 2: What Is Portfolio Management? - Definition from Techopedia 3: What Is Project Portfolio Management (PPM)? |ProjectManager.com 4: What Is Business Impact Analysis? | Smartsheet 5: What Is Change Management? - Definition from Techopedia 6: Benchmarking - Wikipedia

Integration testing is the best way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications, because it tests the interaction and compatibility of different modules or components of the application. Unit testing, pilot testing and system testing are also important, but they do not cover the whole functionality and integration of the application as well as integration testing does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

 The greatest impact as a result of the ongoing deterioration of a detective control is an increased number of false negatives in security logs. A detective control is a control that monitors and identifies any deviations or anomalies from the expected or normal behavior or performance of a system or process. A security log is a record of events or activities that occur within a system or network, such as user access, file changes, system errors, or security incidents. A false negative is a situation where a security log fails to detect or report an actual deviation or anomaly that has occurred, such as an unauthorized access, a malicious modification, or a security breach. An increased number of false negatives in security logs can have a significant impact on the organization’s security posture and risk management, because it can prevent timely detection and response to security threats, compromise the accuracy and reliability of security monitoring and reporting, and undermine the accountability and auditability of user actions and transactions. The other options are not as impactful as anincreased number of false negatives in security logs, because they either do not affect the detection capability of a detective control, or they have less severe consequences for security management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1

 Following a configuration management process to maintain applications is the primary reason for ensuring proper change control. Configuration management is a process of identifying, documenting, controlling, and verifying the configuration items and their interrelationships within an IT system or environment. Following a configuration management process can help to ensure that any changes to the applications are authorized, tested, documented, and tracked throughout their lifecycle. This will help to prevent unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the applications. The other options are not the primary reasons for following a configuration management process, but rather possible benefits or outcomes of doing so. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 225

The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a network printer disposal process is that evidence is not available to verify printer hard drives have been sanitized prior to disposal. This can expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties and cause data breaches. Disposal policies and procedures not being consistently implemented or business units being allowed to dispose printers directly to vendors are compliance issues, but not as critical as data protection. Inoperable printers being stored in an unsecured area is a physical security issue, but not as severe as data leakage. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 387

When outsourcingIS functions,independent audit provisionsensure thatcontractors meet security, compliance, and operational standards.

Option A (Incorrect):Security procedures should be included but are subject tochangeandmay not be detailedin the contract.

Option B (Correct):Independent audit rightsallow the organization toverifythat the vendor complies with security, operational, and regulatory requirements.

Option C (Incorrect):Naming specific staff isimpracticaland not acore contractual requirement.

Option D (Incorrect):Data transfer protocols are important, but they are atechnical detailrather than aprimary contract requirement.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

The primary focus when reviewing operational database management in a cloud environment should be the security settings configuration. Cloud environments often have complex and customizable security configurations, and any misconfiguration can lead to data breaches or unauthorized access. Ensuring proper security settings helps maintain data confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Cloud vendor security certifications (Option A) are important but do not directly address how security is configured. Auto-scaling of provisioning costs (Option B) relates to resource management rather than security. Large-scale data transfers (Option D) may be relevant, but security settings directly impact data protection.

ISACA CISA Reference: Domain 5 - Protection of Information Assets

The greatest concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization’s configuration and release management process is that changes and change approvals are not documented. This is because documentation is essential for ensuring the traceability, accountability, and quality of the changes made to the configuration items (CIs) and the releases deployed to the production environment. Without documentation, it would be difficult to verify the authenticity, validity, and authorization of the changes, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from the changes. Documentation also helps to maintain compliance with internal and external standards and regulations, as well as to facilitate audits and reviews.

The other options are not as concerning as option B, although they may also indicate some weaknesses in the configuration and release management process. The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology, but this does not necessarily mean that their process is ineffective or inefficient. The organization may have developed their own methodology that suits their specific needs and context. However, using an industry-recognized methodology could help them adopt best practices and improve their process maturity. All changes require middle and senior management approval, but this may not be a problem if the organization has a clear and streamlined approval process that does not cause delays or bottlenecks in the change implementation. However, requiring too many approvals could also introduce unnecessary complexity and bureaucracy in the process. There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB), but this does not mean that the organization does not have a way of managing their CIs and their relationships. The organization may use other tools or methods to store and access their configuration data, such as spreadsheets, documents, or repositories. However, having a centralized CMDB could help them improve their visibility, accuracy, and consistency of their configuration data.

The success of a DLP implementation relies heavily on accurately defining and configuring the policies and rule sets. These configurations ensure that the DLP tool effectively monitors and controls the movement of sensitive data within the organization, thereby preventing data loss.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Page 301-302 (Data Loss Prevention)

Before issuing the final audit report, the auditor should confirm factual findings with the auditee. ISACA audit guidance emphasizes that findings should be vetted, communicated, and reviewed with client management prior to final publication so that the report is factually accurate and misunderstandings are resolved.

Option B is correct because confirming factual findings with the auditee is a key step just before final issuance. ISACA guidance notes that findings may be discussed with auditees as they are gathered and should be verified with them where possible. ISACA also stresses that draft reports should be reviewed by client management before publication to ensure factual accuracy.

Option A is incorrect because the audit committee is generally a report recipient or governance body, not the party with whom the auditor first validates factual accuracy of detailed findings. The auditee is in the best position to confirm whether the facts, context, and operational details are accurate before the report becomes final.

Option C is an important audit responsibility, but it should already have been completed during fieldwork and evidence-gathering. By the conclusion of the audit, the auditor should already possess sufficient, appropriate evidence to support findings. The question asks what should be done at the conclusion of the audit, but before issuing the final report, which points to factual confirmation with the auditee.

Option D is not the best answer because management is responsible for developing action plans. While auditors may discuss recommendations, they should not take ownership of management’s corrective action plan in a way that compromises independence. The more immediate and proper pre-issuance step is confirming the factual accuracy of findings.

Thus, in classic CISA logic, the auditor should first ensure that the report is factually correct by validating findings with the auditee before the final report is issued. That makes B the correct answer.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, The Top-Five Audit Essentials for Driving Efficiency and Value — findings should be vetted and communicated with the client; draft report reviewed by client management prior to final publication.

ISACA Journal, Agile Audit — findings may be shared and verified with auditees before the final report.

ISACA Journal, Future Ready: Toward a Sound Agile Audit Framework — auditee feedback at the final reporting stage is important.

ISACA Journal case study — draft report sent to auditee and comments/amendments accepted before issuing report.

 The primary basis for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year is the organizational risk assessment. An organizational risk assessment is a formal process for identifying, evaluating, and controlling risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’sgoals and objectives3. An organizational risk assessment can help IS auditors prioritize and plan their audit activities based on the level of risk exposure and impact of each area or process within the organization. An organizational risk assessment can also help IS auditors align their audit objectives and criteria with the organization’s strategy and performance indicators. Senior management’s request, prior year’s audit findings, and previous audit coverage and scope are also possible bases for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year, but not as primary as the organizational risk assessment. These factors are more secondary or supplementary sources of information that can help IS auditors refine or adjust their audit plan based on specific needs or issues identified by management or previous audits. However, thesefactors may not reflect the current or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s operations or performance. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 295

Due professional care is the obligation of an IS auditor to exercise the appropriate level of skill, competence, and diligence in performing an audit. It also requires the IS auditor to comply with the relevant standards, guidelines, and ethical principles of the profession. Completing an engagement by email only may compromise due professional care, as it may limit the IS auditor’s ability to obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence, to communicate effectively with the auditee and other stakeholders, and to perform adequate quality assurance and review procedures. The other options are not as relevant as due professional care, as they relate to specific aspects of an audit, such as proficiency (the knowledge and skills of the IS auditor), sufficient evidence (the quantity and quality of the audit evidence), and reporting (the presentation and communication of the audit results). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.2 ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards

 IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. The board of directors of an organization is ultimately accountable for IT governance and has the authority to approve the IT strategy. The board of directors does not need to address technical IT issues, be informed of all IT initiatives, or have an IT strategy committee, as these tasks can be delegated to other stakeholders or committees within the organization.

 The most effective control to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor is to monitor and restrict vendor activities. A vendor may have legitimate access to the data center for maintenance or support purposes, but they may also have malicious intentions or be compromised by an attacker. By monitoring and restricting vendor activities, the organization can ensure that the vendor only performs authorized tasks and does not access or tamper with sensitive data or equipment. Issuing an access card to the vendor, concealing data devices and information labels, and restricting use of portable and wireless devices are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as monitoring and restricting vendor activities in preventing theft by a vendor. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 3381

CISA Review Questions,Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Wireless security relies onstrong encryptionto prevent unauthorized access and data interception.

Option A (Correct):WPA3is thelatest and most secureWi-Fi encryption standard, offeringstronger protectionagainst brute-force attacks and improvingkey management.

Option B (Incorrect):DES is outdatedand vulnerable tomodern attacks, making it unsuitable for wireless security.

Option C (Incorrect):WEP is highly insecuredue toweak encryptionand can be cracked inminutesusing basic tools.

Option D (Incorrect):SSL secures web traffic, notwireless networks.

The first step in managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack is to identify vulnerable assets. A zero-day attack is a cyberattack that exploits a previously unknown or unpatched vulnerability in a software or system, before the vendor or developer has had time to fix it. Identifying vulnerable assets is crucial for managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because it helps to determine the scope and severity of the attack, prioritize the protection and mitigation measures, and isolate or quarantine the affected assets from further damage or compromise. The other options are not the first steps in managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because they either require more informationabout the vulnerable assets, or they are part of the subsequentsteps of assessing, responding, or recovering from the attack. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

The most effective way for controlling visitor access to a data center is to ensure that visitors are escorted by an authorized employee, as this prevents unauthorized or malicious actions by the visitors and provides accountability and supervision. Pre-approval of entry requests, visitors signingin at the front desk upon arrival, and closed-circuit television (CCTV) are also useful measures, but they are not as effective as escorting visitors, as theydo not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious actions by the visitors in real time. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.1: Physical Access Controls1

 The first course of action when a data breach has occurred due to malware is to quarantine the impacted systems. This means isolating the infected systems from the rest of the network and preventing any further communication or data transfer with them. This can help contain the spread of the malware, limit the damage and exposure of sensitive data, and facilitate the investigation and remediation of the incident. Quarantining the impacted systems can also help preserve the evidence and logs that may be needed for forensic analysis or legal action.

Change management is the process of planning, implementing, monitoring, and evaluating changes to an organization’s information systems and related components. Change management aims to ensure that changes are aligned with the business objectives, minimize risks and disruptions, and maximize benefits and value.

One of the key aspects of change management is measuring its effectiveness, which means assessing whether the changes have achieved the desired outcomes and met the expectations of the stakeholders. There are various indicators that can be used to measure change management effectiveness, such as time, cost, quality, scope, satisfaction, and performance.

Among the four options given, the most appropriate indicator of change management effectiveness is the number of incidents resulting from changes. An incident is an unplanned event or interruption that affects the normal operation or service delivery of an information system. Incidents can be caused by various factors, such as errors, defects, failures, malfunctions, or malicious attacks. Incidents can have negative impacts on the organization, such as loss of data, productivity, reputation, or revenue.

The number of incidents resulting from changes is a direct measure of how well the changes have been planned, implemented, monitored, and evaluated. A high number of incidents indicates that the changes have not been properly tested, verified, communicated, or controlled. A low number of incidents indicates that the changes have been executed smoothly and successfully. Therefore, the number of incidents resulting from changes reflects the quality and effectiveness of the change management process.

The other three options are not as appropriate indicators of change management effectiveness as the number of incidents resulting from changes. The time lag between changes to the configuration and the update of records is a measure of how timely and accurate the configuration management process is. Configuration management is a subset of change management that focuses on identifying, documenting, and controlling the configuration items (CIs) that make up an information system. The time lag between changes and updates of documentation materials is a measure of how well the documentation process is aligned with the change management process. Documentation is an important aspect of change management that provides information and guidance to the stakeholders involved in or affected by the changes. The number of system software changes is a measure of how frequently and extensively the system software is modified or updated. System software changes are a type of change that affects the operating system, middleware, or utilities that support an information system.

While these three indicators are relevant and useful for measuring certain aspects of change management, they do not directly measure the outcomes or impacts of the changes on the organization. They are more related to the inputs or activities of change management than to its outputs or results. Therefore, they are not as appropriate indicators of change management effectiveness as the number of incidents resulting from changes.

 The type of control that is in place when an organization has established hiring policies and procedures designed specifically to ensure network administrators are well qualified is directive. Directive controls are those that guide or direct the actions of individuals or groups to achieve a desired outcome. Directive controls can also help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of undesirable events. Hiring policies and procedures are examples of directive controls that aim to ensure that only qualified and competent personnel are employed to perform IT-related tasks. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.11

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 2, Lesson 12

 The primary concern when negotiating a contract for a hot site is the availability of the site in the event of multiple disaster declarations. A hot site is a fully equipped alternative facility that can be used to resume business operations in the event of a disaster. However, if multiple clients of the hot site provider declare a disaster at the same time, there may be a shortage of resources or capacity to accommodate all of them. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for ensuring the availability and priority of the hot site for the organization. The other options are not as important as availability, as they do not affect the ability to use the hot site in a disaster situation. Coordination with the site staff in the event of multiple disaster declarations is a logistical issue that can be resolved by communication and planning. Reciprocal agreements with other organizations are alternative arrangements that can be used to share resources or facilities in a disaster, but they may not be as reliable or suitable as a hot site. Complete testing of the recovery plan is a good practice that can help validate and improve the effectiveness of the recovery plan, but it is not a concern for negotiating a contract for a hot site. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

 Access to the data center is controlled by a mantrap provides the greatest assurance that only authorized individuals can access a data center. A mantrap is a physical security device that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens1. A mantrap prevents unauthorized entry by requiring authentication at both doors, such as biometric scanners, card readers, or PIN codes. A mantrap also prevents tailgating, which is the act of following an authorized person into a restricted area without proper authorization2. A mantrap can also detect and trap intruders who attempt to force their way through the doors.

The other options are less effective physical controls for data center access. The data center is patrolled by a security guard is a deterrent measure, but it does not prevent unauthorized access by itself. A security guard may not be able to monitor all entry points, or may be distracted, bribed, or overpowered by intruders. Access to the data center is monitored by video cameras is a detective measure, but it does not prevent unauthorized access either. Video cameras can record the activities of intruders, but they cannot stop them from entering or alert the security personnel in real time. ID badges must be displayed before access is granted is a preventive measure, but it relies on human verification, which can be prone to errors or manipulation. ID badges can also be lost, stolen, or forged by intruders.

An IS auditor’s primary concern would be whether the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements. The storage requirements are determined by the amount and type of data that needs to be backed up and restored in case of a disaster at the primary data center. The recovery site devices should have enough capacity, performance, reliability, and compatibility to meet these requirements.

If the recovery site devices cannot handle the storage requirements, then there is a risk that some data may not be backed up properly or may not be available for recovery when needed. This couldresult in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency, which could affect the business continuity and integrity of the organization.

Therefore, an IS auditor should verify that:

The recovery site devices have sufficient storage space to accommodate all the data that needs to be backed up from the primary data center.

The recovery site devices have adequate bandwidth and speed to transfer and access data efficiently and effectively.

The recovery site devices have appropriate security features and controls to protect data from unauthorized access or modification.

The recovery site devices are compatible with the primary data center devices in terms of hardware, software, format, and protocol.

ACloud Access Security Broker (CASB)ensuresvisibility, compliance, and securityof cloud applications, andmonitoring data movementis the key to detecting threats.

Option A (Correct):Monitoring data movementallows organizations todetect and preventunauthorized access, data exfiltration, and cloud-based threats.

Option B (Incorrect):Along-term contractdoes not inherentlyimprove security monitoring.

Option C (Incorrect):Reviewing policies helps withgovernance, but it does notactively detect threats.

Option D (Incorrect):Firewallsprotectnetwork perimeters, while CASBs focus oncloud security, making this anineffective measurefor CASB threat detection.

The correct answer is A. Requiring log review by management.

In a small organization, full separation of duties may be difficult because one administrator may need to perform firewall configuration changes. When preventive separation is not practical, an effective compensating control is independent management review of firewall activity logs. This helps detect unauthorized, inappropriate, or unapproved changes made by the administrator.

This is especially important because a firewall administrator usually requires privileged access to perform the job. Therefore, simply restricting the administrator’s access may not be realistic if the administrator is responsible for firewall configuration. ISACA notes that segregation of duties can be challenging in small organizations and may need to be supported through compensating controls and monitoring. ISACA’s glossary also defines an audit trail as a logical path linking a sequence of events, which supports the use of logs to trace actions and detect inappropriate changes.

Option B is not the best answer because the administrator needs some level of firewall access to perform assigned duties. Option C is a useful preventive control, but approval alone does not prove that only approved changes were actually implemented. Option D is weak because an annual audit is too infrequent to provide timely detection of unauthorized firewall changes.

This question maps mainly to Protection of Information Assets because firewall administration, privileged access, and security configuration changes directly affect network security and protection of information assets. ISACA’s CISA Exam Content Outline includes identity and access management, network and endpoint security, and security monitoring under Domain 5.

Substantive testing is the most important type of testing during software license audits, as it provides evidence of the accuracy and completeness of the software inventory and licensing records. Substantive testing involves examiningtransactions, balances, and other data to verify their validity, existence, accuracy, and valuation. Compliance testing, on the other hand, is more focused on assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of internal controls over software licensing, such as policies, procedures,and monitoring mechanisms. Compliance testing alone cannot provide sufficient assurance that the software license audit objectives are met, as itdoes notverify the actual software usage and compliance status. Judgmental sampling and stop-or-go sampling are methods of selecting samples for testing, not types of testing themselves. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1206 Testing, “The IS audit and assurance professional should perform sufficient testing to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to support conclusions reached.” 1 The section also defines substantive testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence to detect material misstatements in transactions orbalances” and compliance testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence on theoperating effectiveness of controls.” 1 According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Guideline G15 Software License Management, “The objective of a software license auditis to provide management with an independent assessment relating to compliance with software license agreements.” 2 The guideline also states that “substantive tests should be performed on a sample basis to verify that all software installed on devices within scope has been appropriately licensed.” 2

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, such as networks, devices, and software. It aims to protect the organization’s assets, security, and productivity. An AUP should be formally acknowledged by users to ensure that they are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using the IT resources. Without formal acknowledgment, users may not be held accountable for violating the AUP or may claim ignorance of the policy. This can expose the organization to legal, regulatory, reputational, or operational risks. Lack of data for measuring compliance, violation of industry standards, and noncompliance with documentation requirements are also possible risks from not having users acknowledge the AUP, but they are less significant than lack of user accountability. References: Workable: Acceptable use policy template, Wikipedia: Acceptable use policy

Using analytical tools to produce exception reports from the system and performance monitoring software is the most effective plan of action for a company that purchased and implemented system and performance monitoring software. Exception reports are reports that highlight deviations or anomalies from predefined thresholds or standards. Using analytical tools to produce exception reports can help to reduce the size and complexity of the system and performance monitoring reports, as well as to focus on the most relevant and critical information for review and action. The other options are less effective plans of action, as they may involve unnecessary costs, risks, or efforts. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 219

The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is the business objectives. An information security policy is a document that defines the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from internal and external threats. It should align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals, and support its business processes and functions1. An informationsecurity policy should also be focused on the business needs and requirements of the organization, rather than on technical details orspecific solutions2.

The other options are not as important as the business objectives, because they do not directly reflect the organization’s purpose and direction. IT steering committee minutes are records of the discussions and decisions made by a group of senior executives who oversee the IT strategy and governance of the organization. They may provide some insights into the information security policy, but they are not sufficientto evaluate its adequacy3. Alignment with the IT tactical plan is a measure of how well the information security policy supports the short-term actions and projects that implement the IT strategy. However, the IT tactical plan itself shouldbe aligned with the business objectives, and not vice versa4. Compliance with industry best practice is a desirable quality of an information security policy, but it is not a guarantee of its effectiveness or suitability for the organization. Industry best practices are general guidelines or recommendations that may not apply to every organization or situation. An information security policy should be customized and tailored to the specific context and needs of the organization. References:

The 12 Elements of an Information Security Policy | Exabeam1

11 Key Elements of an Information Security Policy | Egnyte2

What is an IT steering committee? Definition, roles and responsibilities …3

What is IT Strategy? Definition, Components and Best Practices | BMC …4

IT Security Policy: Key Components and Best Practices for Every Business 

Answer: B

Deferring remediation testing until the next audit is justified only when there are significant changes in the audit environment that affect the relevance or validity of the audit observations and recommendations. For example, if there are changes in the business processes, systems, regulations, or risks that require a new audit scope or approach. The other options are not valid justifications for deferring remediation testing, as they do not address the timeliness or quality of the audit follow-up process. The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization does not affect the responsibility of the audit function to ensure that remediation testing is performed as planned. Management’s planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations does not guarantee that management will actually implement those actions or that they will be effective in addressing the audit issues. Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor does not eliminate the need for verification of remediation actions by an independent party. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4

The best way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful is to analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met. Test objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that define what the test aims to accomplish and how it will be evaluated. Test objectives should be aligned with the DRP objectives and scope, and should cover aspects such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), critical business functions, roles and responsibilities, communication channels, backup systems, and contingency procedures. By comparing the actual test results with the expected test objectives, the IS auditor can measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the DRP and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. 

Answer: A. Risk policies

Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and tolerance, and guides the organization’s risk management practices. The most useful informationabout risk appetite can be obtained from the risk policies, which are the documents that define the organization’s risk management framework, principles, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and processes. Risk policies also establish the criteria and thresholds for identifying, assessing, prioritizing, mitigating, and monitoring risks, as well as the reporting and escalation mechanisms for risk issues. By reviewing the risk policies, an IS auditor can evaluate whether they are consistent, comprehensive, and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and whether they provide clear guidance and direction for managing risks effectively.

The other options are not correct because they are either not the most useful or not relevant to risk appetite. Risk assessments are the processes of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Risk assessments provide information about the current risk profile and exposure of the organization, but they do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite or preferences. Prior audit reports are the documents that summarize the findings, recommendations, and conclusions of previous audits. Prior audit reports may provide information about the past performance and issues of the organization’s risk management practices, but they do not reflect the organization’s risk appetite or expectations. Management assertion is a statement or declaration made by management about the accuracy, completeness, validity, or reliability of a certain fact or data. Management assertion may provide information about the management’s confidence or opinion on a specific risk or issue, but it does not represent the organization’s risk appetite or criteria.

This means that the IT investments are aligned with the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they deliver value and benefits to the business. Mapping IT investments to specific business objectives can help ensure that the IT investments are relevant, justified, and measurable, and that they support the organization’s mission and vision.

IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC) is an indication of effective IT project management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. The SDLC is a framework that guides the development and implementation of IT systemsand applications, but it does not address the alignment, justification, or measurement of the IT investments.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT investment is an indication of effective IT performance management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. KPIs are metrics that measure the outcomes and results of IT activities and processes, but they do not address the alignment, justification, or value of the IT investments.

The IT investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks is not an indication of effective IT investment management, but rather of low IT spending. The IT investment budget should be based on the organization’s needs and capabilities, and not on external comparisons. A low IT investment budget may indicate that the organization is underinvesting in IT, which could limit its potential for growth and innovation.

The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing contracts for licensed software that executes a critical business process is that software escrow was not negotiated. Software escrow is an arrangement where a third-party holds a copy of the source code and documentation of a licensed software in a secure location. The software escrow agreement specifies the conditions under which the licensee can access the escrowed materials, such as in case of bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the licensor. Software escrow is important for ensuring the continuity and availability of a critical business process that depends on a licensed software. Without software escrow, the licensee may face significant risks and challenges in maintaining, modifying, or recovering the software in case of any disruption or dispute with the licensor. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

CISA Questions, Answers and Explanations Database