CISA Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

 An organization outsourced its IS functions. To meet its responsibility for disaster recovery, the organization should coordinate disaster recovery administration with the outsourcing vendor. This is because the organization remains accountable for ensuring the continuity and availability of its IS functions, even if they are outsourced to a third party. The organization should establish clear roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing procedures, and escalation processes with the outsourcing vendor for disaster recovery purposes. The organization should not discontinue maintenance of the disaster recovery plan (DRP), as it still needs to have a documented and updated plan for restoring its IS functions in case of a disaster. The organization should not delegate evaluation of disaster recovery to a third party or internal audit, as it still needs to monitor and review the performance and compliance of the outsourcing vendor with respect to disaster recovery objectives and standards. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Auditing Standards]

The first step when creating a data classification program is to develop a policy (D). A data classification policy is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and procedures of the data classification program. A data classification policy is essential for establishing the governance framework, standards, and guidelines for the data classification process. A data classification policy also helps to communicate the expectations and benefits of the data classification program to the stakeholders, such as data owners, users, custodians, and auditors12.

Categorizing and prioritizing data (A) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the third step. Categorizing and prioritizing data involves defining and applying the criteria and labels for classifying data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. For example, data can be categorized into public, internal, confidential, or restricted levels. Categorizing and prioritizing data helps to identify and protect the most critical and sensitive data assets of the organization12.

Developing data process maps (B) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the fourth step. Developing data process maps involves documenting and analyzing the flow and lifecycle of data within the organization. Data process maps show how data is created, collected, stored, processed, transmitted, used, shared, archived, and disposed of. Developing data process maps helps to understand the context and dependencies of data, as well as to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues related to data quality, security, or compliance12.

Categorizing information by owner © is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the second step. Categorizing information by owner involves assigning roles and responsibilities for each type of data based on its ownership and stewardship. Data owners are the individuals or entities that have the authority and accountability for the data. Data stewards are the individuals or entities that have the operational responsibility for managing and maintaining the data. Data custodians are the individuals or entities that have the technical responsibility for implementing and enforcing the security and access controls for the data12.

Maintaining an onboarding and annual security awareness program is the best way to prevent social engineering incidents because it can educate the users about the common techniques and tactics used by social engineers and how to avoid falling victim to them. Ensuring user workstations are running the most recent version of antivirus software, including security responsibilities in job descriptions and requiring signed acknowledgment, and enforcing strict email security gateway controls are all good security practices, but they do not directly address the human factor that is exploited by social engineering. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 3671

ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2

The best recommendation for the IS auditor to facilitate compliance with the new regulation is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures for responding to security incidents. By including the new regulation in the plan, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization is aware of the reporting obligation, has a clear workflow for notifying the regulator within 24 hours, and has the necessary documentation and evidence to support the report.

The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan:

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents is a good practice, but it does not guarantee compliance with the regulation. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance of a process or activity, but they do not specify how to perform it. The IS auditor should also provide guidance on how to identify and report security incidents within 24 hours.

Engaging an external security incident response expert for incident handling is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or cost-effective. The organization may not have the budget or time to hire an external expert, or may prefer to handle the incidents internally. The IS auditor should also evaluate the qualifications and trustworthiness of the external expert, and ensure that they comply with the regulation and other contractual or legal obligations.

Enhancing the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a useful measure, but it is not sufficient to comply with the regulation. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. However, an IDS may not detect all types of security incidents, or may generate false positives or negatives. The IS auditor should also consider other sources of incident detection, such as logs, reports, audits, or user feedback.

The most effective way to ensure the integrity of data transmitted over a network is to use a message digest. A message digest is a cryptographic function that generates a unique and fixed-length value (also known as a hash or checksum) from any input data. The message digest can be used to verify that the data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission by comparing it with the message digest generated at the destination. Message encryption is a method of protecting the confidentiality of data transmitted over a network by transforming it into an unreadable format using a secret key. Message encryption does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. Certificate authority (CA) is an entity that issues and manages digital certificates that bind public keys to identities. CA does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. Steganography is a technique of hiding data within other data, such as images or audio files. Steganography does not ensure the integrity of data, as it does not prevent or detect unauthorized modifications. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 383-3841

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID: 258

Data migration is the process of moving data from one system to another, which may involve changes in storage, database, or application. To perform a successful data migration, it is essential to understand the data structure of the new system, which defines how the data is organized, stored, and accessed. Understanding the new system’s data structure will help determine the following aspects of the data migration project:

The scope and requirements of the data migration, such as what data needs to be migrated, how much data needs to be migrated, and what are the quality and performance expectations.

The data mapping and transformation rules, such as how the data elements from the source system correspond to the data elements in the target system, and what transformations or conversions are needed to ensure compatibility and consistency.

The data validation and testing methods, such as how to verify that the migrated data is accurate, complete, and functional in the new system, and how to identify and resolve any errors or issues.

Therefore, understanding the new system’s data structure is a crucial first step in a data migration project, as it lays the foundation for the subsequent steps of data extraction, transformation, loading, validation, and testing.

IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be unavailable after a disaster before it causes unacceptable consequences for the business. IT RTOs should be based on the business-defined criticality of the systems, which reflects how important they are for supporting the business processes and functions. The maximum tolerable loss of data, the nature of the outage, and the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) are also factors that affect the IT RTOs, but they are not the primary basis for determining them. 

The senior auditor’s most appropriate course of action is to have the finding reinstated, because the auditee’s claim of correcting the problem is not sufficient evidence to support the removal of the finding. The auditor should verify that the corrective action has been implemented effectively and that it has resolved the underlying issue or risk. The auditor should also document the evidence andresults of the verification in the work papers. The other options are not appropriate, because they either accept the auditee’s claim without verification, delegate the responsibility to the auditee or escalate the issue unnecessarily. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 1, section 1.51

ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals,section12062

A top-down approach in the development of IT policies means that the policies are derived from the strategic objectives and goals of the organization, and are aligned with the business needs and expectations. This should result in greater consistency across the organization, as the policies will be coherent, integrated and applicable to all levels and functions of the organization. A bottom-up approach, on the other hand, means that the policies are developed by individual units or departments based on their operational needs and preferences, which may lead to inconsistency, duplication orconflict among different policies. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, IT Governance and Process Maturity

The best sampling method to use for verifying the adequacy of an organization’s internal controls and being concerned about potential circumvention of regulations is B. Random sampling. Random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population in which each item has an equal and independent chance of being selected1. Random sampling reduces the risk of bias or manipulation in the sample selection, and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. Random sampling can be used for both attribute and variable sampling, which are two types of audit sampling that test for the occurrence rate or the monetary value of errors, respectively2.

 Fine tuning the intrusion detection system (IDS) is the best recommendation to reduce the number of false positive alerts that overwhelm the log management system, because it can help adjust the sensitivity and accuracy of the IDS rules and signatures to match the network environment and traffic patterns. Establishing criteria for reviewing alerts, recruiting more monitoring personnel, and reducing thefirewall rules are not effective solutions to address theroot cause of the false positive alerts, but rather ways to cope with the consequences. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section5.4.3

The primary responsibility of a project steering committee is to provide regular project updates and oversight. A project steering committee is an advisory group that consists of senior stakeholders and experts who offer guidance and support to a project manager and their team. The steering committee is mainly concerned with the direction, scope, budget, timeline, and methods used to realize a given project1.

One of the key roles of a steering committee is to monitor the progress and performance of the project and ensure that it aligns with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations. The steering committee also provides feedback, advice, and recommendations to the project manager and helps them resolve any issues or challenges that may arise during the project lifecycle. The steering committee communicates regularly with the project manager and other stakeholders through meetings, reports, and presentations23.

Therefore, providing regular project updates and oversight is the primary responsibility of a project steering committee.

The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations.

Some of the web sources that support this answer are:

Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security

ISO 27001 Annex A.5 - Information Security Policies

[CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor – Question0551]

 The greatest concern associated with a high number of IT policy exceptions approved by management is that the exceptions may result in noncompliance. IT policy exceptions are deviations from the established IT policies that are granted by management for specific reasons and circumstances. However, if there are too many exceptions, it may indicate that the IT policies are not aligned with the business needs, regulatory requirements, or best practices. This may expose the organization to legal, contractual, or reputational risks due to noncompliance. The other options are not as concerning as noncompliance, as they do not have the same potential impact or consequences. The exceptions are likely to continue indefinitely is a possible outcome of a high number of exceptions, but it does not necessarily imply a negative effect on the organization. The exceptions may elevate the level of operational risk is a valid concern, but it can be mitigated by implementing compensating controls or monitoring mechanisms. The exceptions may negatively impact process efficiency is a minor concern, as it does not affect the effectiveness or reliability of the IT processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

The most useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio is the net present value (NPV) of the portfolio. NPV is a measure of the profitability and value of a project or a portfolio of projects, taking into account the time value of money and the expected cash flows. NPV compares the present value of the future cash inflows with the present value of the initial investment and shows how much value is created or lost by undertaking a project or a portfolio of projects1. A positive NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth more than its cost and will generate a positive return on investment. A negative NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth less than its cost and will result in a loss. Therefore, NPV helps management to prioritize andselect the most profitable and valuable projects or portfolios that align with the organizational strategy and objectives2. The other options are less useful or incorrect because:

A. Cost of projects divided by total IT cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows the proportion of IT budget allocated to the projects, which may not be indicative oftheir strategic importance or alignment3.

B. Expected return divided by total project cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not account for the time value of money and the timing of cash flows. It only shows the average return per unit of cost, which may not be comparable across different projects or portfolios with differentdurations, risks, and cash flow patterns4.

D. Total cost of each project is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows theinitial investment required for eachproject, which may not be indicative of their profitability or viability5. References: Portfolio, Program and Project Management Using COBIT 5 - ISACA, Project PortfolioManagement - ISACA, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques

 An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone. This is a social engineering attack method that exploits the trust or curiosity of the employee to obtain sensitive information that can be used to access or compromise the network. According to the web search results, social engineering is a technique that uses psychological manipulationto trick users into making security mistakes or giving away sensitive information1. Phishing, whaling, baiting, and pretexting are some of the common forms of social engineering attacks2. Social engineering attacks are often more effective and profitable than purely technical attacks, as they rely on human error rather than system vulnerabilities

A lack ofMobile Device Management (MDM) enrollmentis the biggest concern, asunmanaged devicespose a serious security risk.

Not All Devices Enrolled in MDM (Correct Answer – C)

Unenrolled devices can bypass security policies.

Example:A stolen, unenrolled device may lack encryption, exposing corporate data.

Biometric Authentication Required (Incorrect – A)

Biometrics are anenhanced security measure, not a concern.

VPN Not Required for Internal Network (Incorrect – B)

VPNs are typically used for external access, not always needed internally.

Remote Wipe Requires Internet (Incorrect – D)

A limitation but stillless riskythan allowing unsecured devices.

 A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures. 

 The best way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements is to conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board (CAB). A CAB is a committee that evaluates and authorizes changes to IT services, such as new IT implementations. By conducting EA reviews as part of the CAB process, the organization can ensure that the proposed changes are consistent with the EA vision, goals, standards, and guidelines. This can help avoid potential conflicts, risks, or inefficiencies that may arise from misaligned IT implementations. Additionally, EA reviews can help identify opportunities for improvement, optimization, or innovation in the IT services.

The other options are not the best ways to help ensure new IT implementations align with EA principles and requirements. Documenting the security view as part of the EA is important, but it does not guarantee that new IT implementations will follow the security requirements or best practices. Considering stakeholder concerns when defining the EA is also essential, but it does not ensure that new IT implementations will meet the stakeholder expectations or needs. Performing mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations is a good practice, but it does not prevent potential issues or problems that may arise from misaligned IT implementations.

Configuring rule sets is the first activity that should be completed during the implementation of a DLP solution, because rule sets define the criteria and actions for identifying, monitoring, and preventingdata loss incidents12. Rule sets are based on the organization’s data classification, policies, and requirements, and they help to ensure that the DLP solution is aligned with the business objectives and risk appetite34. Configuring rule sets before enabling detection points, establishing exceptions workflow, or configuring reports helps to avoid false positives, false negatives, or unnecessary alerts5.

References

1: 3.13: Deploy a Data Loss Prevention Solution - Read the Docs

2: Plan and implement data loss prevention (DLP) [Guided] - NICCS

3: CONTINUOUS DIAGNOSTICS AND MITIGATION PROGRAM DATA PROTECTION … - CISA

4: Continuous Diagnostics and Mitigation Program Technical … - CISA

5: Data Loss Prevention Best Practices - ISACA Journal

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The IS auditor should remain independent and objective. The best way to provide value without interfering in management decisions is to review and comment on the criteria used for evaluating alternatives, ensuring they are complete, relevant, and aligned with business needs.

Option A: Identifying the “best” option compromises independence.

Option B: Deferring to the audit report misses the chance to add timely value.

Option D: Requesting another alternative intrudes on management’s role.

Option C: Correct — ensures appropriate evaluation criteria without biasing decisions.

???? ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 3, section on auditor’s role in system development projects.

Thoroughsystem testingbefore deployment helps identify potentialbugs, vulnerabilities, and performance issuesto prevent system failures.

System Testing (Correct Answer – B)

Detects defects that could lead to system crashes.

Ensures compatibility and performance stability.

Example:Stress testing an e-commerce application to prevent crashes on Black Friday.

System Recovery Plan (Incorrect – A)

Focuses on recovery after failure rather than prevention.

Business Continuity Plan (Incorrect – C)

Addresses overall business resilience, not application stability.

Transaction Monitoring (Incorrect – D)

Detects fraud and anomalies but does not prevent failures.

The correct answer is A. The recovery time objective (RTO) has a longer duration than documented in the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

This is the greatest concern because the third-party provider’s SLA does not support the bank’s disaster recovery requirement. If the SLA allows a longer recovery time than the DRP requires, the bank may be unable to recover critical services within the approved recovery objective during a disaster.

Option B is a concern because SLAs should be periodically reviewed, but it is less serious than a direct mismatch between the SLA and the DRP recovery requirement. Option C is not a concern because a shorter RPO is better than the DRP requirement; it means less data loss than required. Option D may be a concern depending on backup architecture and resilience, but the clearest and most direct issue is that the provider’s RTO exceeds the bank’s DRP requirement.

ISACA third-party risk management guidance states that contract provisions, typically in SLAs, should address risk-related commitments, and third-party risk management should combine the vendor risk profile with the risk profile of the engagement.

The correct answer is A. Periodic database maintenance.

A DBMS requires regular maintenance to keep performance at an optimal level. Periodic database maintenance may include rebuilding or reorganizing indexes, updating statistics, checking database integrity, archiving or purging obsolete data, monitoring storage utilization, reviewing query performance, and tuning database parameters. These activities help prevent performance degradation as data volumes grow and transaction patterns change.

ISACA defines a DBMS as software that controls the organization, storage, and retrieval of data in a database. ISACA also notes that the database administrator’s responsibilities include database design, definition, and maintenance. This supports the point that ongoing maintenance is central to effective database operation.

Option B is not the best answer because data consistency control protects the correctness and integrity of data, but it does not directly keep the DBMS at maximum performance.

Option C is not the best answer because database logging supports recovery, troubleshooting, accountability, and auditability, but logging can also add overhead and is not primarily a performance optimization activity.

Option D is not the best answer because data model normalization improves data structure and reduces redundancy during database design. However, once the database is in operation, periodic maintenance is more directly effective for sustaining DBMS performance.

This question maps to Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience because the CISA Exam Content Outline includes Database Management and evaluation of IT operations and maintenance practices under Domain 4.

The first step when planning a penetration test is to obtain management consent for the testing. This is because a penetration test involves simulating a cyberattack against theorganization’s systems and networks, which may have legal, ethical, and operational implications. Without proper authorization from management, a penetration test may violate laws, policies, contracts, or service level agreements. Management consent also helps define the objectives, scope, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the stakeholders. Obtaining management consent for the testing also demonstrates due care and due diligence on the part of the testers and the organization.

Executing nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), determining reporting requirements for vulnerabilities, and defining the testing scope are important steps when planning a penetration test, but they are not the first step. These steps should be done after obtaining management consent for the testing, as they depend on the approval and involvement of management and other parties.

From a risk management standpoint, the best approach for implementing a large and complex data center infrastructure is a deployment plan based on sequenced phases. ISACA guidance repeatedly supports phased implementation for complex, high-risk changes because it allows the organization to manage dependencies, reduce disruption, validate results incrementally, and maintain operational continuity while lessons from earlier phases can inform later ones.

Option D is correct because phased deployment reduces concentration of implementation risk. Instead of exposing the organization to a single large-scale failure point, phased rollout allows testing, adjustment, monitoring, and controlled transition. ISACA material discussing complex implementations emphasizes structured, phased approaches to handle technical debt, compatibility issues, and continuity concerns.

Option A is incorrect because a big bang deployment concentrates risk, even if a proof of concept was successful. A proof of concept demonstrates feasibility in limited conditions, but it does not eliminate the operational risks of a full-scale one-time cutover in a complex environment. For large infrastructure changes, CISA logic generally prefers phased approaches over big bang implementations.

Option B is useful, but simulation alone is not the best answer. Simulation can support planning and testing, yet it does not by itself provide the controlled risk reduction that phased deployment offers during actual implementation. In CISA questions, the best risk-management choice is usually the one that combines control and gradual exposure reduction, which is phased rollout.

Option C is incorrect because “prototyping and a one-phase deployment” still culminates in a single-phase rollout, which is riskier than sequenced deployment. A prototype can improve design understanding, but it does not replace the value of incremental implementation in a complex production environment.

Therefore, D is the best answer because a sequenced, phased deployment is the most effective risk-management approach for large and complex infrastructure implementations.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Passwordless Authentication: Risk, Reward, and Readiness — supports a carefully crafted phased implementation to manage complexity and maintain continuity.

ISACA Journal, Working Toward a White Box Approach — highlights the risks created by complexity in large IT initiatives.

ISACA Journal, Essential Frameworks and Methodologies to Maximize the Value of IT — supports structured project and program management sequencing.

ISACA Journal, A Strategic Risk-Based Approach to Systems Security Engineering — supports using a risk-based approach for complex systems change.

DLP technologies are designed to prevent the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as PII, intellectual property, or financial information, by employees or other insiders. DLP technologies can monitor, detect, and block data in motion, data at rest, and data in use across various channels, such as email, web, cloud, or removable devices. DLP technologies can also help enforce data security policies and compliance requirements.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 253

The role of disclosures in risk assessment and mitigation

Mitigate Risk Strategy for Information Management

The correct answer is B. Discuss the concern with audit management.

When an employee reports a critical security concern to an IS auditor, the auditor should first discuss the matter with audit management. This ensures the concern is handled through the proper audit reporting and escalation process. Audit management can help determine whether the issue is within audit scope, whether immediate escalation is needed, whether a special review should be authorized, and whether legal, compliance, security, or executive management should be involved.

Option A is not correct because recommending a rollback is a management decision. The auditor should not directly decide or recommend operational action without proper evaluation and authorization. Option C may become appropriate later, but the auditor should not independently begin an application review without audit management’s awareness and approval. Option D may be required if legal implications exist, but the auditor should not go directly to legal counsel before following the audit escalation process unless required by policy or law.

This question maps to Information Systems Auditing Process because it concerns audit communication, escalation, auditor responsibility, and handling audit-relevant information. ISACA’s CISA Exam Content Outline includes IS audit standards, audit planning, audit evidence, audit reporting, and communication of audit results under Domain 1.

 The first thing that an IS auditor should review when finding that transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release is stress testing results. Stress testing is a type of testing that evaluates how a system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions, such as high volume, load, or concurrency of transactions. Stress testing results can help explain why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release by revealing any bottlenecks, limitations, or errors in the system’s capacity, performance, or functionality under stress. The other options are not as relevant as stress testing results in explaining why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release, as they do not directly measure how the systemperforms under extreme or abnormal conditions. Capacity management plan is a document that defines and implements the processes and activities for ensuring that the system has adequate resources and capabilities to meet current and future demands. Training plans are documents that define and implement the processes and activities for ensuring that the system users have adequate skills and knowledge to use the system effectively and efficiently. Database conversion results are outcomes or outputs of transforming data from one format or structure to another to suit the system’s requirements or specifications. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

Residual risk from the findings of previous audits should be the primary basis for prioritizing follow-up audits, because it reflects the level of exposure and potential impact that remains after management has implemented corrective actions or accepted the risk. Follow-up audits should focus on verifying whether the residual risk is within acceptable levels and whether the corrective actions are effective and sustainable. Audit cycle defined in the audit plan, complexity of management’s action plans, and recommendation from executive managementare not valid criteria for prioritizingfollow-up audits,because they do not consider the residual risk from previous audits. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4.3

A balanced scorecard is a framework that translates the IT strategy into measurable objectives, indicators, targets, and initiatives across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard helps to monitor and evaluate how well the IT function is delivering value to the organization, achieving its strategic goals, and improving its capabilities and competencies. The other options are not the primary uses of a balanced scorecard, because they either focus on specific aspects of IT rather than the overall performance, or they are not directly related to the IT strategy.

Monitoringcapacity utilizationsupportsavailabilityby ensuring thatresources remain functional and do not exceed operational limits.

Option A (Incorrect):Integrityensures that data isaccurate and unaltered, but monitoring capacity thresholds primarily relates tosystem availability.

Option B (Correct):Availabilityensures that systems remainaccessible and functional, and monitoring capacity utilization helpsprevent downtimeandservice disruptions.

Option C (Incorrect):Confidentialityensures that data isprotected from unauthorized access, which is unrelated to capacity monitoring.

Option D (Incorrect):Nonrepudiationensures that actions can betraced to specific individuals, but it does not relate tocapacity monitoring.

The best recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees is dual control. Dual control is a segregation of duties control that requires two or more individuals to perform or authorize a transaction or activity. Dual control can prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by requiring independent verification and approval of payment requests, amounts, and recipients by different accounts payable employees. The other options are not as effective as dual control in preventing fraudulent electronic funds transfers, as they do not involve independent checks or approvals. Periodic vendor reviews are detective controls that can help identify any irregularities or anomalies in vendor payments, but they do not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Independent reconciliation is a detective control that can help compare and confirm payment records with bank statements, but it does not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Re-keying of monetary amounts is an input control that can help detect any errors or discrepancies in payment amounts, but it does not prevent fraudulentelectronic funds transfers from occurring. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

The first step in addressing a vulnerability is to evaluate the associated risk, which involves assessing the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit. Based on the risk assessment, the appropriate mitigation strategy can be determined, such as implementing a new system, addingfirewalls, or decommissioning the server. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 280

 Identifying business processes associated with personal data exchange with the affected jurisdiction is the most helpful activity in making an assessment of the organization’s level of exposure in the affected country. An IS auditor should understand how the organization’s business operations and functions rely on or involve the cross-border transfer of personal data, as well as the potentialimpacts and risks of the new regulation on the business continuity and compliance. The other options are less helpful activities that may provide additional information or context for the assessment, but not its primary focus. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.4.21

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 221

The programmer having access to the production programs is a control weakness that would have contributed most to the problem of unauthorized changes to key fields in a payroll system report. This is because it violates the principle of segregation of duties, which requires that different individuals or groups perform different functions related to system development, testing, implementation, and operation. Allowing programmers to access production programs increases the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious actions that may compromise the integrity, availability, or confidentiality of the system or its data. The other options are not as significant as having access to production programs, as they relate to other aspects of system development or maintenance, such as user involvement in testing (which affects user satisfaction and acceptance), user requirements documentation (which affects system functionalityand quality), and payroll files control (which affects data security and accuracy). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Section 3.2 Project Management Practices

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The greatest risk to laptop computers is data exposure in case of theft or loss. The most effective safeguard is full disk encryption, which ensures that even if the device is stolen, data remains unreadable without the encryption key.

Disabled USB ports (A): Prevents some forms of data exfiltration but does not protect stored data.

MFA (C): Protects user authentication but not the data if the disk is removed.

Passkey phrases (D): Improves authentication strength but is weaker than encryption for data protection.

???? ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 5 (Protection of Information Assets), section on endpoint security and encryption controls.