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What should an IS auditor evaluate FIRST when reviewing an organization's response to new privacy legislation?
Implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information
Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements
Operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation
Analysis of systems that contain privacy components
The first thing that an IS auditor should evaluate when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation is the analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy components are elements of a system that collect, process, store, or transmit personal information that is subject to privacy legislation. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components should identify what types of personal information are involved, where they are located, how they are used, who has access to them, and what risks or threats they face. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components is essential for determining the scope and impact of the new privacy legislation on the organization’s systems and processes.
The other options are not as important as option D. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a possible action, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a document that outlines how an organization will comply with the principle of data minimization, which states that personal information should be collected only for specific and legitimate purposes and only to the extent necessary for those purposes. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information should be based on an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a possible source of reference, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a set of laws or regulations that governs the protection of personal information in other jurisdictions that may have comparable or compatible standards or expectations as the new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements may provide guidance or best practices for complying with the new privacy legislation. However, privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements should not be used as a substitute foran analysis of systems that contain privacy components. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a possible deliverable, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a document that describes how an organization will implement and maintain the necessary policies, procedures, controls, and measures to comply with the new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation should be derived from an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. References: Privacy law - Wikipedia, Data Protection and Privacy Legislation Worldwide | UNCTAD, Data minimization - Wikipedia
During planning for a cloud service audit, audit management becomes aware that the assigned IS auditor is unfamiliar with the technologies in use and their associated risks to the business. To ensure audit quality, which of the following actions should audit management consider FIRST?
Conduct a follow-up audit after a suitable period has elapsed.
Reschedule the audit assignment for the next financial year.
Reassign the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert.
Extend the duration of the audit to give the auditor more time.
The best action that audit management should consider first is to reassign the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert. This is because cloud service audits require specialized knowledge and skills to assess the risks and controls associated with the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. An IS auditor who is unfamiliar with the technologies in use and their associated risks to the business may not be able to perform an effective and efficient audit, and may miss important issues or provide inaccurate recommendations. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the IS auditor assigned to the cloud service audit has the appropriate competence and experience.
The other options are not as good as reassigning the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert. Conducting a follow-up audit after a suitable period has elapsed may not address the quality issues of the initial audit, and may also delay the identification and remediation of any problems. Rescheduling the audit assignment for the next financial year may expose the organization to unnecessary risks and may not meet the audit objectives or expectations. Extending the duration of the audit to give the auditor more time may not be feasible or cost-effective, and may not guarantee that the auditor will acquire the necessary knowledge and skills in time.
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to improve the effectiveness of its incident response team?
Conducting periodic testing and incorporating lessons learned
Increasing the mean resolution time and publishing key performance indicator (KPI) metrics
Disseminating incident response procedures and requiring signed acknowledgment by team members
Ensuring all team members understand information systems technology
Conducting periodic testing and incorporating lessons learned is the best way to improve the effectiveness of an incident response team. This allows the team to practice their response procedures, identify any gaps or weaknesses in their response, and learn from their mistakes. It also helps to keep the team’s skills sharp and up-to-date. The lessons learned from these tests can then be used to improve the team’s procedures and performance12. While understanding information systems technology, disseminating incident response procedures, and publishing KPI metrics can contribute to the effectiveness of the team, they do not provide the same level of continuous improvement as periodic testing and learning from experience.
Which of the following is the MOST effective control over visitor access to highly secured areas?
Visitors are required to be escorted by authorized personnel.
Visitors are required to use biometric authentication.
Visitors are monitored online by security cameras
Visitors are required to enter through dead-man doors.
The most effective control over visitor access to highly secured areas is to require visitors to be escorted by authorized personnel. This control ensures that visitors are supervised at all times and do not enter any restricted or sensitive areas without permission. It also allows authorized personnel to verify the identity, purpose, and clearance of the visitors, and to monitor their behavior and activities. Escorting visitors also reduces the risk of tailgating, piggybacking, or unauthorized duplication of access credentials.
Requiring visitors to use biometric authentication, monitoring visitors online by security cameras, and requiring visitors to enter through dead-man doors are all examples of technical controls that can enhance visitor access control, but they are not as effective as escorting visitors. Biometric authentication can provide a high level of identity verification, but it does not prevent visitors from accessing unauthorized areas or compromising security in other ways. Security cameras can provide a record of visitor movements and actions, but they may not deter or detect security breaches in real time. Dead-man doors can prevent unauthorized entry by requiring two-factor authentication, but they do not ensure that visitors are accompanied by authorized personnel.
Which of the following metrics is the BEST indicator of the performance of a web application
HTTP server error rate
Server thread count
Average response time
Server uptime
The best indicator of the performance of a web application is the average response time. This metric measures how long it takes for the web server to process and deliver a request from the client. It reflects the user’s perception of how fast or slow the web application is, and it affects the user’s satisfaction, engagement, and conversion. A low average response time means that the web application is responsive and efficient, while a high average response time means that the web application is sluggish and unreliable.
HTTP server error rate, server thread count, and server uptime are not as good indicators of the performance of a web application as the average response time. HTTP server error rate measures how often the web server fails to handle a request and returns an error code, such as 404 (Not Found) or 500 (Internal Server Error). This metric indicates the reliability and availability of the web application, but it does not capture how fast or slow the web application is. Server thread count measures how many concurrent requests the web server can handle at a given time. This metric indicates the scalability and capacity of the web application, but it does not capture how long each request takes to process. Server uptime measures how long the web server has been running without interruption. This metric indicates the stability and resilience of the web application, but it does not capture how well the web application performs during that time.
Which of the following is the MOST important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy?
Critical business applications
Business processes
Existing IT controls
Recent audit results
This is because the business processes are the core activities and functions that enable the organization to achieve its objectives and create value for its stakeholders. The business processes are also the sources and drivers of various risks that may affect the organization’s performance, compliance, and reputation. Therefore, the IS auditor should focus on understanding, assessing, and prioritizing the business processes that are most critical, complex, or vulnerable to the organization’s success, and align the audit objectives, scope, and resources accordingly12.
Critical business applications (A) are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather a specific aspect of the business processes that may require attention. Critical business applications are the software systems that support the execution and automation of the business processes, such as enterprise resource planning (ERP), customer relationship management (CRM), or accounting systems. Critical business applications may pose significant risks to the organization if they are not reliable, secure, or efficient. Therefore, the IS auditor should consider the criticality, functionality, and dependency of the business applications when planning the audit, but not as the primary focus12.
Existing IT controls © are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather an outcome or output of the risk assessment process. Existing IT controls are the policies, procedures, practices, and technologies that are implemented to manage and mitigate the IT-related risks that may affect the organization’s business processes and objectives. Existing IT controls may vary in their design, effectiveness, and maturity. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate and testthe existing IT controls as part of the audit execution and reporting process, but not as the main focus12.
Recent audit results (D) are not the most important area of focus for an IS auditor when developing a risk-based audit strategy, but rather an input or source of information for the risk assessment process. Recent audit results are the findings, recommendations, and opinions of previous audits that may provide insights or feedback on the organization’s business processes, risks, and controls. Recent audit results may also indicate any changes or trends in the organization’s risk profile or environment. Therefore, the IS auditor should review and consider the recent audit results as part of the audit planning and scoping process, but not as the main focus12.
An IS auditor learns that an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) has not been updated in the last 18 months and that the organization recently closed a production plant. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Determine whether the business impact analysis (BIA) is current with the organization's structure and context.
Determine the types of technologies used at the plant and how they may affect the BCP.
Perform testing to determine the impact to the recovery time objective (R TO).
Assess the risk to operations from the closing of the plant.
The IS auditor should first determine whether the business impact analysis (BIA) is current with the organization’s structure and context. The BIA is a critical component of the BCP and should reflect the current state of the organization. If the BIA is not up-to-date, it may not accurately reflect the impact of a disruption to the organization’s operations, including the closure of a production plant12.
During a pre-deployment assessment, what is the BEST indication that a business case will lead to the achievement of business objectives?
The business case reflects stakeholder requirements.
The business case is based on a proven methodology.
The business case passed a quality review by an independent party.
The business case identifies specific plans for cost allocation.
During a pre-deployment assessment, the best indication that a business case will lead to the achievement of business objectives is that the business case reflects stakeholder requirements. A business case is a document that explains the rationale, benefits, costs, and risks of a proposed project or initiative. A business case should align with the strategic goals and vision of the organization and address the needs and expectations of the stakeholders who are involved in or affected by the project12.
Stakeholder requirements are the conditions or capabilities that stakeholders expect from a project or its outcomes. Stakeholders can include customers, users, employees, managers, suppliers, regulators, and others who have an interest or stake in the project. Stakeholder requirements should be identified, analyzed, prioritized, validated, and documented throughout the project lifecycle34.
The business case should reflect stakeholder requirements because they provide the basis for defining the project scope, objectives, deliverables, quality standards, success criteria, and benefits realization. By reflecting stakeholder requirements, the business case can demonstrate how the project will add value to the organization and its stakeholders, justify the investment and resources required for the project, and facilitate the decision-making and approval process for the project5 .
Therefore, during a pre-deployment assessment, an IS auditor should look for evidence that the business case reflects stakeholder requirements as the best indication that the business case will lead to the achievement of business objectives.
The use of which of the following would BEST enhance a process improvement program?
Model-based design notations
Balanced scorecard
Capability maturity models
Project management methodologies
Capability maturity models (CMMs) are frameworks that help organizations assess and improve their processes in various domains, such as software development, project management, service delivery, and cybersecurity1. CMMs define different levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and describe the characteristics and best practices of each level. By using CMMs, organizations can benchmark their current processes against a common standard, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions to achieve higher levels of process maturity2. CMMs can also help organizations align their processes with their strategic goals, measure their performance, and increase their efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction3.
Therefore, the use of CMMs would best enhance a process improvement program, as they provide a systematic and structured approach to evaluate and improve processes based on proven principles and practices. Option C is the correct answer.
Option A is not correct because model-based design notations are graphical or textual languages that help designers specify, visualize, and document the structure and behavior of systems4. While they can be useful for designing and communicating complex systems, they do not directly address the process improvement aspect of a program.
Option B is not correct because balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps organizations translate their vision and mission into measurable objectives and indicators. While it can be useful for monitoring and evaluating the performance of a program, it does not provide specific guidance on how to improve processes.
Option D is not correct because project management methodologies are sets of principles and practices that help organizations plan, execute, and control projects. While they can be useful for managing the scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk of a program, they do not focus on the process improvement aspect of a program.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an IS auditor to perform a risk assessment?
It helps to identify areas with a relatively high probability of material problems.
It provides a basis for the formulation of corrective action plans.
It increases awareness of the types of management actions that may be inappropriate
It helps to identify areas that are most sensitive to fraudulent or inaccurate practices
The primary reason for an IS auditor to perform a risk assessment is to help identify areas with a relatively high probability of material problems. A risk assessment is a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in an activity or undertaking. It involves identifying the sources of risk, analyzing the likelihood and impact of the risk, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance. A risk assessment helps the IS auditor to focus on the areas that are most vulnerable to errors, fraud, or inefficiencies, and to design appropriate audit procedures to address those risks. A risk assessment also helps the IS auditor to allocate audit resources efficiently and effectively.
A risk assessment does not provide a basis for the formulation of corrective action plans, as this is a responsibility of management, not the IS auditor. A risk assessment does not increase awareness of the types of management actions that may be inappropriate, as this is a matter of professional ethicsand judgment. A risk assessment does not help to identify areas that are most sensitive to fraudulent or inaccurate practices, as this is a result of the risk assessment, not its purpose.
An IT strategic plan that BEST leverages IT in achieving organizational goals will include:
a comparison of future needs against current capabilities.
a risk-based ranking of projects.
enterprise architecture (EA) impacts.
IT budgets linked to the organization's budget.
An IT strategic plan that best leverages IT in achieving organizational goals will include enterprise architecture (EA) impacts. EA is the practice of analyzing, designing, planning, and implementing enterprise analysis to successfully execute on business strategies1. EA helps organizations structure IT projects and policies to align with business goals, to stay agile and resilient in the face of rapid change, and to stay on top of industry trends and disruptions1. EA also describes an organization’s processes, information processes and personnel and other organizational subunits aligned with the organization’s core goals and strategies2. By including EA impacts in the IT strategic plan, an organization can ensure that the IT initiatives are consistent with the business vision, objectives, and tactics, and that they support the desired business outcomes3.
A comparison of future needs against current capabilities, a risk-based ranking of projects, and IT budgets linked to the organization’s budget are all important elements of an IT strategic plan, but they do not necessarily leverage IT in achieving organizational goals. A comparison of future needsagainst current capabilities can help identify gaps and opportunities for improvement, but it does not provide a clear direction or roadmap for how to achieve them. A risk-based ranking of projects can help prioritize the most critical and beneficial projects, but it does not ensure that they are aligned with the business strategy or that they deliver value to the stakeholders. IT budgets linked to the organization’s budget can help allocate resources and monitor costs, but they do not reflect the impact or contribution of IT to the business performance or growth.
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of outsourcing the development of an e-banking solution when in-house technical expertise is not available?
Lower start-up costs
Reduced risk of system downtime
Direct oversight of risks
Increased ability to adapt the system
Outsourcing the development of an e-banking solution when in-house technical expertise is not available can significantly reduce start-up costs. This is because the organization can avoid the expenses associated with hiring and training a full-time development team, purchasing necessary hardware and software, and maintaining the system1. While outsourcing can also potentially reduce the risk of system downtime, increase the ability to adapt the system, and provide direct oversight of risks, these benefits are not as immediate or guaranteed as the cost savings123.
The PRIMARY responsibility of a project steering committee is to:
sign off on the final build document.
ensure that each project deadline is met.
ensure that developed systems meet business needs.
provide regular project updates and oversight.
The primary responsibility of a project steering committee is to provide regular project updates and oversight. A project steering committee is an advisory group that consists of senior stakeholders and experts who offer guidance and support to a project manager and their team. The steering committee is mainly concerned with the direction, scope, budget, timeline, and methods used to realize a given project1.
One of the key roles of a steering committee is to monitor the progress and performance of the project and ensure that it aligns with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations. The steering committee also provides feedback, advice, and recommendations to the project manager and helps them resolve any issues or challenges that may arise during the project lifecycle. The steering committee communicates regularly with the project manager and other stakeholders through meetings, reports, and presentations23.
Therefore, providing regular project updates and oversight is the primary responsibility of a project steering committee.
A business has requested an audit to determine whether information stored in an application is adequately protected. Which of the following is the MOST important action before the audit work begins?
Review remediation reports
Establish control objectives.
Assess the threat landscape.
Perform penetration testing.
The most important action before the audit work begins is to establish control objectives. Control objectives are the specific goals or outcomes that the audit intends to achieve or verify in relation to the information protection in the application1. Control objectives provide the basis for designing and performing the audit procedures, evaluating the audit evidence, and reporting the audit findings and recommendations2. Control objectives also help to align the audit scope and criteria with the business needs and expectations, and to ensure that the audit is relevant, reliable, and efficient3.
Some examples of control objectives for an information protection audit are:
To ensure that the information stored in the application is classified according to its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements
To ensure that the information stored in the application is encrypted, masked, or anonymized as appropriate
To ensure that the information stored in the application is accessible only by authorized users and processes
To ensure that the information stored in the application is backed up, restored, and retained according to the business continuity and retention policies
To ensure that the information stored in the application is monitored, logged, and audited for any unauthorized or anomalous activities
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Option A is not correct because reviewing remediation reports is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Remediation reports are documents that describe how previous audit findings or issues have been resolved or addressed by the auditee4. While reviewing remediation reports may be useful for understanding the current state of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.
Option C is not correct because assessing the threat landscape is not the most important action before the audit work begins. The threat landscape is the set of potential sources, methods, and impacts of cyberattacks or data breaches that may affect the information stored in the application5. While assessing the threat landscape may be helpful for identifying and prioritizing the risks and vulnerabilities of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.
Option D is not correct because performing penetration testing is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Penetration testing is a technique that simulates real-world cyberattacks or data breaches to test the security and resilience of information systems or applications.
Which type of risk would MOST influence the selection of a sampling methodology?
Inherent
Residual
Control
Detection
The type of risk that would most influence the selection of a sampling methodology is detection risk (option D). This is because:
Detection risk is the risk that the auditor will not detect a material misstatement that exists in an assertion1. Detection risk depends on the effectiveness of the audit procedures and how well they are applied by the auditor1.
The selection of a sampling methodology is part of the design of audit procedures, which aims to reduce detection risk to an acceptable level1. The auditor should consider the following factors when selecting a sampling methodology23:
The objectives of the audit procedure and the related assertions.
The characteristics of the population from which the sample will be drawn, such as its size, homogeneity, and structure.
The sampling technique to be used, such as random, systematic, haphazard, or judgmental.
The sample size and the method of selecting sample items.
The evaluation of the sample results and the projection of errors to the population.
The auditor should also consider the advantages and disadvantages of different sampling methodologies, such as statistical and non-statistical sampling23. Statistical sampling is a sampling technique that uses random selection and probability theory to evaluate sample results. Non-statistical sampling is a sampling technique that does not use random selection or probability theory to evaluate sample results. Some of the advantages and disadvantages are as follows23:
Statistical sampling allows the auditor to measure and control sampling risk, which is the risk that the sample is not representative of the population. Statistical sampling also allows the auditor to quantify the precision and reliability of the sample results. However, statistical sampling requires more technical knowledge and skills, as well as more time and cost, than non-statistical sampling.
Non-statistical sampling relies on the auditor’s professional judgment and experience to select and evaluate sample items. Non-statistical sampling is more flexible and less complex than statistical sampling. However, non-statistical sampling does not provide an objective basis for measuring and controlling sampling risk, nor does it allow the auditor to quantify the precision and reliability of the sample results.
Therefore, the type of risk that would most influence the selection of a sampling methodology is detection risk (option D), as it determines how effective and efficient the audit procedures should be in order to provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
Which of the following would be an auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system?
Undocumented code formats data and transmits directly to the database.
There is not a complete inventory of spreadsheets, and file naming is inconsistent.
The department data protection policy has not been reviewed or updated for two years.
Spreadsheets are accessible by all members of the finance department.
The auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system would be undocumented code that formats data and transmits directly to the database. This is because undocumented code can introduce errors, inconsistencies, and security risks in the data processing and reporting. Undocumented code can also make it difficult to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data inputs and outputs, as well as to trace the source and destination of the data. Undocumented code can also violate the principles of segregation of duties, as the same person who creates the code may also have access to the data and the database.
The other options are not as concerning as undocumented code, although they may also pose some risks. A lack of complete inventory of spreadsheets and inconsistent file naming may make it challenging to identify and locate the relevant spreadsheets, but they do not directly affect the quality or integrity of the data inputs. The department data protection policy not being reviewed or updated for two years may indicate a lack of awareness or compliance with the current data protection regulations, but it does not necessarily imply that the data inputs are compromised or inaccurate. Spreadsheets being accessible by all members of the finance department may increase the risk of unauthorized or accidental changes to the data, but it can be mitigated by implementing access controls, password protection, and audit trails.
An IS audit review identifies inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts. Which of the following is the BEST
recommendation to address this situation?
Suspend contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data.
Prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers.
Review privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal.
Require third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).
The best recommendation to address the situation of inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers. This is because:
Privacy requirements are essential to ensure the protection of personal information and compliance with relevant laws and regulations, such as the GDPR and the CCPA123.
Inconsistencies in privacy requirements can create risks of data breaches, legal liabilities, reputational damage, and consumer distrust for the organization that outsources its data processing to third-party providers123.
Suspending contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data (option A) is not a feasible or effective solution, as it may disrupt the business operations and cause contractual penalties or disputes4.
Reviewing privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal (option C) is not a proactive or timely approach, as it may leave the organization exposed to privacy risks for a long period of time until the contracts expire4.
Requiring third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) (option D) is not a sufficient measure, as NDAs only cover the confidentiality of information, but not other aspects of privacy, such as data minimization, retention, access, deletion, and security4.
Therefore, the best recommendation is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers (option B), as this would allow the organization to align the privacy requirements with its own policies and standards, as well as with the applicable laws and regulations. This would also enable the organization to monitor and audit the compliance of third-party providers with the privacy requirements and enforce appropriate remedies or sanctions in case of noncompliance45.
An IS auditor is reviewing a client's outsourced payroll system to assess whether the financial audit team can rely on the application. Which of the following findings would be the auditor's
GREATEST concern?
User access rights have not been periodically reviewed by the client.
Payroll processing costs have not been included in the IT budget.
The third-party contract has not been reviewed by the legal department.
The third-party contract does not comply with the vendor management policy.
The third-party contract has not been reviewed by the legal department is the auditor’s greatest concern because it poses a significant legal and financial risk to the client. A third-party contract is a legally binding agreement between the client and the outsourced payroll provider that defines the scope, terms, and conditions of the service. A third-party contract should be reviewed by the legal department to ensure that it complies with the applicable laws and regulations, protects the client’s interests and rights, and specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. A third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department may contain clauses that are unfavorable, ambiguous, or contradictory to the client, such as:
Inadequate or unclear service level agreements (SLAs) that do not specify the quality, timeliness, and accuracy of the payroll service.
Insufficient or vague security and confidentiality provisions that do not safeguard the client’s data and information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss.
Unreasonable or excessive fees, penalties, or liabilities that may impose an undue financial burden on the client.
Limited or no audit rights that may prevent the client from verifying the effectiveness and compliance of the payroll provider’s internal controls.
Inflexible or restrictive termination clauses that may limit the client’s ability to cancel or switch to another payroll provider.
A third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department may expose the client to various risks, such as:
Legal disputes or litigation with the payroll provider over contractual breaches or performance issues.
Regulatory fines or sanctions for noncompliance with tax, labor, or other laws and regulations related to payroll.
Financial losses or damages due to errors, fraud, or negligence by the payroll provider.
Reputation damage or customer dissatisfaction due to payroll errors or delays.
Therefore, an IS auditor should be highly concerned about a third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department and recommend that the client seek legal advice before signing or renewing any contract with an outsourced payroll provider.
User access rights have not been periodically reviewed by the client is a moderate concern because it may indicate a lack of proper access control over the payroll system. User access rights are the permissions granted to users to access, view, modify, or delete data and information in the payroll system. User access rights should be periodically reviewed by the client to ensure that they are aligned with the user’s roles and responsibilities, and that they are revoked or modified when a user changes roles or leaves the organization. User access rights that are not periodically reviewed by the client may result in unauthorized or inappropriate access to payroll data and information, which may compromise its confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Payroll processing costs have not been included in the IT budget is a minor concern because it may indicate a lack of proper planning and allocation of IT resources for payroll processing. Payroll processing costs are the expenses incurred by the client for using an outsourced payroll service, such as fees, charges, taxes, or penalties. Payroll processing costs should be included in the IT budget to ensure that they are adequately estimated, monitored, and controlled. Payroll processing costs that are not included in the IT budget may result in unexpected or excessive costs for payroll processing, which may affect the client’s profitability and cash flow.
The third-party contract does not comply with the vendor management policy is a low concern because it may indicate a lack of alignment between the client’s vendor management policy and its actual vendor selection and evaluation process. A vendor management policy is a set of guidelines and procedures that governs how the client manages its relationship with its vendors, such as how to select, monitor, evaluate, and terminate vendors. A vendor management policy should be consistent with the client’s business objectives, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements. A third-party contract that does not comply with the vendor management policy may result in suboptimal vendor performance or service quality, but it does not necessarily imply a breach of contract or a violation of law.
An IS auditor has identified deficiencies within the organization's software development life cycle policies. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
Document the findings in the audit report.
Identify who approved the policies.
Escalate the situation to the lead auditor.
Communicate the observation to the auditee.
An IS auditor has identified deficiencies within the organization’s software development life cycle (SDLC) policies. The SDLC is the process of planning, developing, testing, and deploying software applications1. SDLC policies are the guidelines and standards that govern the SDLC process and ensure its quality, security, and compliance2. Deficiencies in SDLC policies can lead to various risks, such as:
Software errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that can affect the functionality, reliability, or security of the applications3
Software failures, delays, or overruns that can affect the delivery, performance, or customer satisfaction of the applications3
Software non-compliance that can result in legal, regulatory, or contractual violations or penalties3
The next step that the IS auditor should do after identifying deficiencies in SDLC policies is to communicate the observation to the auditee. The auditee is the person or entity that is subject to the audit and is responsible for the area being audited4. In this case, the auditee could be the software development manager, the project manager, or the senior management of the organization. Communicating the observation to the auditee is important for several reasons:
It allows the IS auditor to verify the accuracy and validity of the observation and gather additional evidence or information from the auditee4
It gives the auditee an opportunity to respond to the observation and provide their perspective, explanation, or justification for the deficiencies4
It enables the IS auditor to discuss with the auditee the potential impact, root cause, and remediation plan for the deficiencies4
It fosters a collaborative and constructive relationship between the IS auditor and the auditee and promotes transparency and accountability in the audit process4
The other options are not as appropriate as communicating the observation to the auditee. Documenting the findings in the audit report is a later stepthat should be done after communicating with the auditee and finalizing the observation. Identifying who approved the policies is not relevant for addressing the deficiencies and may imply blame or fault on a specific person or group. Escalating the situation to the lead auditor is not necessary unless there is a serious disagreement or conflict with the auditee that cannot be resolved by normal communication. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY basis on which audit objectives are established?
Audit risk
Consideration of risks
Assessment of prior audits
Business strategy
The primary basis on which audit objectives are established is the consideration of risks12. This involves identifying and assessing the risks that could prevent the organization from achieving its objectives12. The audit objectives are then designed to address these risks and provide assurance that the organization’s controls are effective in managing them12. While audit risk, assessment of prior audits, and business strategy are important factors in the audit process, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of considering risks12.
Which of the following findings would be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management process?
The organization's software inventory is not complete.
Applications frequently need to be rebooted for patches to take effect.
Software vendors are bundling patches.
Testing patches takes significant time.
The organization’s software inventory is not complete. This finding would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization’s patch management process because:
A software inventory is a list of all the software assets that an organization owns, uses, or manages. A software inventory is essential for effective patch management, as it helps identify the software that needs to be updated, the patches that are available, and the dependencies and compatibility issues that may arise. Without a complete software inventory, an organization may miss some critical patches, expose itself to security risks, and waste resources on unnecessary or redundant patches.
Applications frequently need to be rebooted for patches to take effect. This finding would be of moderate concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization’s patch management process because:
Rebooting applications for patches to take effect is a common and expected practice in some cases, especially for operating system or kernel patches. However, frequent reboots may indicate that the organization is not applying patches in a timely or efficient manner, or that the patches are not well-designed or tested. Frequent reboots may also cause disruption to the business operations and user experience, and increase the risk of data loss or corruption.
Software vendors are bundling patches. This finding would be of low concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization’s patch management process because:
Bundling patches is a practice where software vendors combine multiple patches into a single package or update. Bundling patches can have some advantages, such as reducing the number of downloads and installations, simplifying the patch management process, and ensuring consistency and compatibility among patches. However, bundling patches can also have some disadvantages, such as increasing the size and complexity of the updates, delaying the delivery of critical patches, and introducing new bugs or vulnerabilities.
Testing patches takes significant time. This finding would be of low concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization’s patch management process because:
Testing patches is a vital step in the patch management process, as it helps ensure that the patches are functional, secure, and compatible with the existing software and hardware environment. Testing patches can take significant time, depending on the scope, complexity, and frequency of the patches. However, testing patches is a necessary investment to avoid potential problems or failures that could result from applying untested or faulty patches.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) system?
Compliance testing
Stop-or-go sampling
Substantive testing
Variable sampling
Substantive testing © provides the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s security information and event management (SIEM) system, because it is a type of audit testing that directly examines the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the data and transactions recorded in the logs. Substantive testing can involve various methods, such as re-performance, inspection, observation, inquiry, or computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs), to verify the existence, occurrence, valuation, ownership, presentation, and disclosure of the log data1. Substantive testing canalso detect any errors, omissions, alterations, or manipulations of the log data that may indicate fraud or misstatement2.
Compliance testing (A) is not the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system, because it is a type of audit testing that evaluates the design and effectiveness of the internal controls that are implemented to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and procedures. Compliance testing can involve various methods, such as walkthroughs, questionnaires, checklists, or flowcharts, to assess the adequacy, consistency, and operation of the internal controls1. Compliance testing can provide assurance that the log data are generated and processed in accordance with the established rules and standards, but it does not directly verify the accuracy and reliability of the log data itself2.
Stop-or-go sampling (B) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to select a sample from a population for testing. Stop-or-go sampling is a sequential sampling technique that allows auditors to stop testing before reaching the predetermined sample size if the results are satisfactory or conclusive. Stop-or-go sampling can reduce the audit cost and time by avoiding unnecessary testing, but it can also increase the sampling risk and uncertainty by relying on a smaller sample3. Stop-or-go sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.
Variable sampling (D) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to estimate a numerical characteristic of a population for testing. Variable sampling is a statistical sampling technique that allows auditors to measure the amount or rate of error or deviation in a population by using quantitative methods. Variable sampling can provide precise and objective results by using mathematical formulas and confidence intervals4. Variable sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.
A global organization's policy states that all workstations must be scanned for malware each day. Which of the following would provide an IS auditor with the BEST evidence of continuous compliance with this policy?
Penetration testing results
Management attestation
Anti-malware tool audit logs
Recent malware scan reports
Anti-malware tool audit logs would provide an IS auditor with the best evidence of continuous compliance with the global organization’s policy that states that all workstations must be scanned for malware each day. Anti-malware tool audit logs are records that capture the activities and events related to the anti-malware software installed on the workstations, such as scan schedules, scan results, updates, alerts, and actions taken1. These logs can help the IS auditor to verify that the anti-malware software is functioning properly, that the scans are performed regularly and effectively, and that any malware incidents are detected and resolved in a timely manner2. Anti-malware tool audit logs can also help the IS auditor to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the anti-malware policy or implementation, and to provide recommendations for improvement3.
The other options are not the best evidence of continuous compliance with the anti-malware policy. Penetration testing results are reports that show the vulnerabilities and risks of the workstations and network from an external or internal attacker’s perspective4. While penetration testing can help to assess the security posture and resilience of the organization, it does not provide information on the daily anti-malware scans or their outcomes. Management attestation is a statement or declaration from the management that they have complied with the anti-malware policy5. While management attestation can demonstrate commitment and accountability, it does not provide objective or verifiable evidence of compliance. Recent malware scan reports are documents that show the summary or details of the latest anti-malware scans performed on the workstations. While recent malware scan reports can indicate the current status and performance of the anti-malware software, they do not provide historical or comprehensive evidence of compliance.
Which of the following should be given GREATEST consideration when implementing the use of an open-source product?
Support
Performance
Confidentiality
Usability
Support should be given the greatest consideration when implementing the use of an open-source product, as open-source software may not have the same level of technical support, maintenance, and updates as proprietary software1. Open-source software users may have to rely on the community of developers and users, online forums, or third-party vendors for support, which may not be timely, reliable, or consistent2. Therefore, before implementing an open-source product, users should evaluate the availability and quality of support options, such as documentation, forums, mailing lists, bug trackers, chat channels, etc.3
The following findings are the result of an IS auditor's post-implementation review of a newly implemented system. Which of the following findings is of GREATEST significance?
A lessons-learned session was never conducted.
The projects 10% budget overrun was not reported to senior management.
Measurable benefits were not defined.
Monthly dashboards did not always contain deliverables.
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whetherthe objectives of the project were met, determine how effectively this wasachieved, learn lessons for the future, and ensure that the organisation gets the most benefit from the implementation of projects1. A PIR is an important tool for assessing the success and value of a project, as well as identifying the areas for improvement and best practices for future projects.
One of the key elements of a PIR is to measure the benefits of the project against the expected outcomes and benefits that were defined at the beginning of the project. Measurable benefits are the quantifiable and verifiable results or outcomes that the project delivers to theorganisation or its stakeholders, such as increased revenue, reduced costs, improved quality, enhanced customer satisfaction, or compliance with regulations2. Measurable benefits should be aligned with the organisation’s strategy, vision, and goals, and should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound).
The finding that measurable benefits were not defined is of greatest significance among the four findings, because it implies that:
The project did not have a clear and agreed-upon purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables
The project did not have a valid and realistic business case or justification for its initiation and implementation
The project did not have a robust and effective monitoring and evaluation mechanism to track its progress, performance, and impact
The project did not have a reliable and transparent way to demonstrate its value proposition and return on investment to the organisation or its stakeholders
The project did not have a meaningful and actionable way to learn from its achievements and challenges, and to improve its processes and practices
Therefore, an IS auditor should recommend that measurable benefits are defined for any project before its implementation, and that they are reviewed and reported regularly during and after the project’s completion.
The other possible findings are:
A lessons-learned session was never conducted: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A lessons-learned session is a process of capturing and documenting the knowledge, experience, and feedback gained from a project, both positive and negative. A lessons-learned session helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the project management process, as well as the best practices and lessons for future projects. A lessons-learned session should be conducted at the end of each project phase or milestone, as well as at the end of the project. However, even without a formal lessons-learned session, some learning may still occur informally or implicitly among the project team members or stakeholders.
The projects 10% budget overrun was not reported to senior management: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A budget overrun is a situation where the actual cost of a project exceeds its planned or estimated cost. A budget overrun may indicate poor planning, estimation, or control of the project resources, or unexpected changes or risks that occurred during the project implementation. A budget overrun should be reported to senior management as soon as possible, along with the reasons for it and the corrective actions taken or proposed. However, a budget overrun may not necessarily affect the quality or value of the project deliverables or outcomes if they are still within acceptable standards or expectations.
Monthly dashboards did not always contain deliverables: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A dashboard is a visual tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs) or metrics related to a project’s progress, status, or results. A dashboard helps to monitor and communicate the performance of a project to various stakeholders in a concise and clear manner. A dashboard should include deliverables as one of its components, along with other elements such as schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, or benefits. However, even without deliverables in monthly dashboards, some information about them may still be available from other sources such as reports or documents.
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of data owners when implementing a data classification process?
Reviewing emergency changes to data
Authorizing application code changes
Determining appropriate user access levels
Implementing access rules over database tables
The most important responsibility of data owners when implementing a data classification process is determining appropriate user access levels (option C). This is because:
Data owners are the persons or entities that have the authority and responsibility for the business processes and functions that collect, use, store, and dispose of data1.
Data owners are accountable for ensuring that the data is handled in compliance with the applicable laws, regulations, policies, and standards, such as the GDPR and the PIPEDA1234.
Data owners are in the best position to determine the purpose and necessity of collecting and retaining data, as well as the risks and benefits associated with it1.
Data owners should consult with other stakeholders, such as the risk manager, the database administrator (DBA), and the privacy manager, to establish and implement appropriate data classification policies and procedures2.
Data classification is the process of organizing data in groups based on their attributes and characteristics, and then assigning class labels that describe a set of attributes that hold true for the corresponding data sets345.
Data classification helps organizations to identify, manage, protect, and understand their data, as well as to comply with modern data privacy regulations345.
Data classification also helps to determine appropriate user access levels, which means defining who can access, modify, share, or delete data based on their roles, responsibilities, and needs345.
Determining appropriate user access levels is the most important responsibility of data owners when implementing a data classification process, as it ensures that only authorized and legitimate users can access sensitive or important data. This provides confidentiality, integrity, availability, and accountability of data345.
Reviewing emergency changes to data (option A), authorizing application code changes (option B), and implementing access rules over database tables (option D) are not the most important responsibilities of data owners when implementing a data classification process. These are more related to the operational aspects of data management, which are usually delegated to other roles, such as the DBA or the IT staff. The data owner should oversee and approve these activities, but not perform them directly1.
Which of the following is the BEST point in time to conduct a post-implementation review?
After a full processing cycle
Immediately after deployment
After the warranty period
Prior to the annual performance review
The best point in time to conduct a post-implementation review is after a full processing cycle. A post-implementation review is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met, how effective the project was managed, what benefits were realized, and what lessons were learned. A post-implementation review should be conducted after a full processing cycle, which is the period of time required for a system or process to complete all its functions and produce its outputs. This allows for a more accurate and comprehensive assessment of the project’s performance, outcomes, impacts, and issues.
The other options are not as good as option A. Conducting a post-implementation review immediately after deployment is too soon, because it does not allow enough time for the project’s product or service to operate in the real world and generate measurable results. Conducting a post-implementation review after the warranty period is too late, because it may miss some important feedback or opportunities for improvement that could have been addressed earlier. Conducting a post-implementation review prior to the annual performance review is irrelevant, because it does not align with the project’s life cycle or objectives. References: What is Post-Implementation Review in Project Management?, What Is the Post-Implementation Review (PIR) Process?, Post-implementation review in project management?
A small business unit is implementing a control self-assessment (CSA) program and leveraging the internal
audit function to test its internal controls annually. Which of the following is the MOST significant benefit of
this approach?
Compliance costs are reduced.
Risks are detected earlier.
Business owners can focus more on their core roles.
Line management is more motivated to avoid control exceptions.
The most significant benefit of implementing a control self-assessment (CSA) program and leveraging the internal audit function to test its internal controls annually is that risks are detected earlier. A CSA program is a process that enables business owners and managers to assess and improve their own internal controls on a regular basis, without relying on external auditors or consultants. A CSA program can help identify and mitigate risks, enhance performance, increase accountability, and foster a culture of control within the organization. By leveraging the internal audit function to test its internal controls annually, a small business unit can also obtain independent assurance and validation of its CSA results, as well as recommendations for improvement. This approach can help reduce compliance costs, as external audits may be less frequent or extensive. However, this is not the most significant benefit, as compliance costs are only one aspect of the total cost of risk. Business owners can also focus more on their core roles, as they can delegate some of their control responsibilities to their staff or teams through CSA. However, this is not the most significant benefit, as business owners still need to oversee and monitor their CSA activities and results, and ensure that they align with their strategic objectives and priorities. Line management may also be more motivated to avoid control exceptions, as they are directly involved in assessing and improving their own controls through CSA. However, this is not the most significant benefit, as motivation alone may not be sufficient to ensure effective control design and operation. References: Info Technology & Systems Resources | COBIT, Risk, Governance … - ISACA, IT Governance and Process Maturity
During an audit, an IT finding is agreed upon by all IT teams involved, but no team wants to be responsible for remediation or considers the finding within Its area of responsibility Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST course of action?
Escalate to IT management for resolution.
Issue the finding without identifying an owner
Assign shared responsibility to all IT teams.
Determine the most appropriate team and assign accordingly.
The best course of action for the IS auditor is A. Escalate to IT management for resolution. This is because IT management is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the IT activities and functions within the organization, and ensuring that they comply with the audit findings and recommendations1. IT management can help resolve the issue of finding ownership by:
Clarifying and communicating the roles and responsibilities of each IT team, and how they relate to the finding and its remediation2.
Evaluating and assigning the finding to the most appropriate IT team, based on their expertise, authority, and availability2.
Providing guidance and support to the assigned IT team, and monitoring their progress and performance in remediating the finding2.
An IS auditor reviewing incident response management processes notices that resolution times for reoccurring incidents have not shown improvement. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation?
Harden IT system and application components based on best practices.
Incorporate a security information and event management (SIEM) system into incident response
Implement a survey to determine future incident response training needs.
Introduce problem management into incident response.
The auditor’s best recommendation is D. Introduce problem management into incident response. Problem management is a practice that aims to identify, analyze, and resolve the root causes of recurring incidents, and prevent or reduce their impact in the future1. Problem management can help improve the resolution times for recurring incidents by eliminating or mitigating the underlying problems that cause them, and by providing permanent solutions that can be reused or automated2. Problem management can also help improve the quality and efficiency of incident response by reducing the workload and complexity of dealing with repetitive issues2.
An IS auditor determines that the vendor's deliverables do not include the source code for a newly acquired product. To address this issue, which of the following should the auditor recommend be included in the contract?
Confidentiality and data protection clauses
Service level agreement (SLA)
Software escrow agreement
Right-to-audit clause
The correct answer is C. Software escrow agreement. A software escrow agreement is a legal arrangement between three parties: the software developer (licensor), the end-user (licensee), and an escrow agent. The agreement ensures that the software’s source code and other relevant assets are securely stored with the escrow agent, and can be released to the licensee under certain conditions, such as the licensor’s bankruptcy, insolvency, or failure to provide support or maintenance1. A software escrow agreement can provide the licensee with assurance and continuity for the software they depend on, and protect them from losing access or functionality in case of any unforeseen events or disputes with the licensor1.
Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain an audit trail of changes made to the source code of a program?
Embed details within source code.
Standardize file naming conventions.
Utilize automated version control.
Document details on a change register.
Automated version control systems are the best method to maintain an audit trail of changes made to the source code of a program. They automatically track and manage changes to the source code over time, allowing you to see what changes were made, when they were made, and who made them1. This provides a clear and detailed audit trail that can be invaluable for debugging, understanding the evolution of the code, and ensuring accountability23.
An IS auditor found that a company executive is encouraging employee use of social networking sites for business purposes. Which of the following recommendations would BEST help to reduce the risk of data leakage?
Requiring policy acknowledgment and nondisclosure agreements signed by employees
Providing education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites
Establishing strong access controls on confidential data
Monitoring employees' social networking usage
While all the options can help reduce the risk of data leakage, providing education and guidelines to employees on the use of social networking sites would be the most effective. This is because it directly addresses the issue at hand - the use of social networking sites for business purposes1. Education and guidelines can help employees understand the risks associated withsocial media use and teach them how to safely and responsibly use these platforms for business purposes1. This includes understanding privacy settings, recognizing phishing attempts, and knowing what information should not be shared on these platforms1.
If a source code is not recompiled when program changes are implemented, which of the following is a compensating control to ensure synchronization of source and object?
Comparison of object and executable code
Review of audit trail of compile dates
Comparison of date stamping of source and object code
Review of developer comments in executable code
Source code synchronization is the process of ensuring that the source code and the object code (the compiled version of the source code) are consistent and up-to-date1. When program changes are implemented, the source code should be recompiled to generate a new object code that reflects the changes. However, if the source code is not recompiled, there is a risk that the object code may be outdated or incorrect. A compensating control is a measure that reduces the risk of an existing control weakness or deficiency2. A compensating control for source code synchronization is to compare the date stamping of the source and object code. Date stamping is a method of recording the date and time when a file is created or modified3. By comparing the date stamping of the source and object code, one can verify if they are synchronized or not. If the date stamping of the source code is newer than the object code, it means that the source code has been changed but not recompiled. If the date stamping of the object code is newer than the source code, it means that the object code has been compiled from a different source code. If the date stamping of both files are identical, it means that they are synchronized.
Which type of control is being implemented when a biometric access device is installed at the entrance to a facility?
Preventive
Deterrent
Corrective
Detective
A biometric access device installed at the entrance to a facility is a type of preventive control. Preventive controls are designed to deter or prevent undesirable events from occurring12. They are proactive measures that aim to inhibit incidents before they happen12. In this case, the biometric access device prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining access to the facility by requiring unique biological characteristics for authentication12.
An IS auditor is evaluating an enterprise resource planning (ERP) migration from local systems to the cloud. Who should be responsible for the data
classification in this project?
Information security officer
Database administrator (DBA)
Information owner
Data architect
The best option for the question is C, information owner. This is because:
The information owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the business processes and functions that collect, use, store, and dispose of data1.
The information owner is accountable for ensuring that the data is handled in compliance with the applicable laws, regulations, policies, and standards, such as the GDPR and the PIPEDA1234.
The information owner is in the best position to determine the purpose and necessity of collecting and retaining data, as well as the risks and benefits associated with it1.
The information owner should consult with other stakeholders, such as the risk manager, the database administrator (DBA), and the privacy manager, to establish and implement appropriate data classification policies and procedures2.
Data classification is the process of organizing data in groups based on their attributes and characteristics, and then assigning class labels that describe a set of attributes that hold true for the corresponding data sets345.
Data classification helps organizations to identify, manage, protect, and understand their data, as well as to comply with modern data privacy regulations345.
Data classification also helps to determine appropriate user access levels, which means defining who can access, modify, share, or delete data based on their roles, responsibilities, and needs345.
Therefore, the information owner should be responsible for the data classification in an ERP migration project from local systems to the cloud (option C), as they have the authority and accountability for the data and its protection.
The other options are not correct because:
The information security officer (option A) is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the security policies and practices of the organization that involve data6. The information security officer should advise and assist the information owner on the best practices and standards for data security, but not determine the data classification.
The database administrator (DBA) (option B) is responsible for installing, configuring, monitoring, maintaining, and improving the performance of databases and data stores that contain data5. The DBA should support the information owner in implementing and enforcing the data classification policies and procedures, but not determine them.
The data architect (option D) is responsible for designing, modeling, and documenting the logical and physical structures of databases and data stores that contain data7. The data architect should collaborate with the information owner in creating and maintaining the data classification schema and metadata, but not determine them.
Which of the following approaches will ensure recovery time objectives (RTOs) are met for an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
Performing a cyber resilience test
Performing a full interruption test
Performing a tabletop test
Performing a parallel test
A full interruption test is the most realistic and reliable way to ensure that recovery time objectives (RTOs) are met for an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP). RTOs are the maximum amount of time that a business can tolerate being offline after a disaster. A full interruption test involves shutting down the primary site and switching over to the backup site, simulating a real disaster scenario. This test can measure the actual time it takes to restore the systems, applications, and functions that are critical for the business continuity. A full interruption test can also reveal any issues or gaps in the DRP that might affect the recovery process.
The other options are not as effective as a full interruption test for ensuring RTOs are met. A cyber resilience test is a type of DR test that focuses on the ability to withstand and recover from cyberattacks. It does not necessarily cover other types of disasters or test the entire DRP. A tabletop test is a low-impact DR test that involves a walkthrough of the DRP with the key stakeholders and staff. It does not involve any actual switching over or testing of the backup systems. A parallel test is a type of DR test that involves running the backup systems alongside the primary systems, without disrupting the normal operations. It does not measure the time it takes to switch over or resume operations at the backup site.
An IS auditor is planning an audit of an organization's risk management practices. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information about
risk appetite?
Risk policies
Risk assessments
Prior audit reports
Management assertion
Answer: A. Risk policies
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and tolerance, and guides the organization’s risk management practices. The most useful informationabout risk appetite can be obtained from the risk policies, which are the documents that define the organization’s risk management framework, principles, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and processes. Risk policies also establish the criteria and thresholds for identifying, assessing, prioritizing, mitigating, and monitoring risks, as well as the reporting and escalation mechanisms for risk issues. By reviewing the risk policies, an IS auditor can evaluate whether they are consistent, comprehensive, and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and whether they provide clear guidance and direction for managing risks effectively.
The other options are not correct because they are either not the most useful or not relevant to risk appetite. Risk assessments are the processes of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Risk assessments provide information about the current risk profile and exposure of the organization, but they do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite or preferences. Prior audit reports are the documents that summarize the findings, recommendations, and conclusions of previous audits. Prior audit reports may provide information about the past performance and issues of the organization’s risk management practices, but they do not reflect the organization’s risk appetite or expectations. Management assertion is a statement or declaration made by management about the accuracy, completeness, validity, or reliability of a certain fact or data. Management assertion may provide information about the management’s confidence or opinion on a specific risk or issue, but it does not represent the organization’s risk appetite or criteria.
Which of the following is MOST critical to the success of an information security program?
Alignment of information security with IT objectives
Management’s commitment to information security
Integration of business and information security
User accountability for information security
The correct answer is B. Management’s commitment to information security. Management’s commitment to information security is the most critical factor for the success of an information security program, as it provides the leadership, support, and resources needed to establish and maintain a secure environment. Management’s commitment to information security can be demonstrated by:
Setting the vision, mission, and goals for information security, and aligning them with the organization’s strategies and objectives1.
Establishing and enforcing the policies, standards, and procedures for information security, and ensuring compliance with relevant laws and regulations1.
Allocating sufficient budget, staff, and technology for information security, and investing in training and awareness programs2.
Promoting a culture of security within the organization, and engaging with stakeholders and partners to foster trust and collaboration2.
An IS auditor is verifying the adequacy of an organization's internal controls and is concerned about potential circumvention of regulations. Which of the following is the BEST sampling method to use?
Variable sampling
Random sampling
Cluster sampling
Attribute sampling
The best sampling method to use for verifying the adequacy of an organization’s internal controls and being concerned about potential circumvention of regulations is B. Random sampling. Random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population in which each item has an equal and independent chance of being selected1. Random sampling reduces the risk of bias or manipulation in the sample selection, and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. Random sampling can be used for both attribute and variable sampling, which are two types of audit sampling that test for the occurrence rate or the monetary value of errors, respectively2.
When physical destruction IS not practical, which of the following is the MOST effective means of disposing of sensitive data on a hard disk?
Overwriting multiple times
Encrypting the disk
Reformatting
Deleting files sequentially
The correct answer is A. Overwriting multiple times. Overwriting is a method of securely erasing data from a hard disk by replacing the existing data with random or meaningless data, making it difficult or impossible to recover the original data1. Overwriting multiple times, also known as multiple-pass overwriting, is a more effective way of disposing of sensitive data than overwriting once, as it reduces the possibility of residual traces of data that could be recovered by advanced techniques2. Overwriting multiple times can be done by using specialized software tools that follow certain standards or algorithms, such as the US Department of Defense’s DoD 5220.22-M or the Gutmann method3.
The FIRST step in an incident response plan is to:
validate the incident.
notify the head of the IT department.
isolate systems impacted by the incident.
initiate root cause analysis.
The first step in an incident response plan is typically preparation12. However, among the options provided, validating the incident would be the first step. This involves confirming that a security event is actually an incident3. It’s important to verify the event to avoid wasting resources on false positives.
What should an IS auditor recommend to management as the MOST important action before selecting a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?
Determine service level requirements.
Complete a risk assessment.
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)
Conduct a vendor audit.
Before selecting a SaaS vendor, the most important action is to complete a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the potential risks associated with outsourcing software and IT infrastructure to a third-party provider. A risk assessment helps to determine the impact and likelihood of various threats, such as data breaches, service disruptions, vendor lock-in, compliance issues, and legal disputes. A risk assessment also helps to identify the mitigation strategies and controls that can reduce or eliminate the risks.
A risk assessment is more important than determining service level requirements, performing a business impact analysis (BIA), or conducting a vendor audit because it provides the basis for these other actions. Service level requirements are the expectations and obligations that define the quality and quantity of service that the vendor must provide to the customer. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential effects of an interruption or disruption of critical business functions or processes due to an incident or disaster. A vendor audit is a process of verifying the vendor’s compliance with the contract terms, service levels, security policies, and best practices.
Service level requirements, BIA, and vendor audit are all important actions for selecting a SaaS vendor, but they depend on the results of the risk assessment. For example, service level requirements should reflect the risk appetite and tolerance of the customer, which are determined by the risk assessment. A BIA should prioritize the recovery of the most critical and vulnerable business functions or processes, which are identified by the risk assessment. A vendor audit should focus on the areas of highest risk and concern, which are highlighted by the risk assessment.
Therefore, an IS auditor should recommend to management that completing a risk assessment is the most important action before selecting a SaaS vendor.
Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with when a system uses RFID?
privacy
Maintainability
Scalability
Nonrepudiation
RFID stands for Radio Frequency Identification, and it is a technology that uses radio waves to identify or track objects that have a small chip (RFID tag) attached to them. RFID tags can store various types of information, such as serial numbers, product codes, or personal data. RFID readers can scan the tags from a distance and access the information without physical contact1.
RFID has many benefits for different applications, such as inventory management, supply chain optimization, asset tracking, and access control. However, RFID also poses some challenges and risks for information security and privacy. Some of these risks are:
Privacy: RFID tags can be read by unauthorized or malicious parties, who can collect personal or sensitive data without the knowledge or consent of the tag owners. This can lead to identity theft, profiling, tracking, or surveillance2. For example, a hacker could scan an RFID-tagged passport or credit card and steal the personal information or financial details of the owner3.
Communication attacks: RFID systems are vulnerable to various types of attacks that target the wireless communication between the tags and the readers. These include eavesdropping, jamming, spoofing, replaying, cloning, or modifying the data transmitted by the tags or the readers4. For example, an attacker could intercept the data from an RFID tag and alter it before sending it to the reader, causing false or misleading information to be recorded.
Mafia fraud: This is a type of attack where an adversary acts as a man-in-the-middle and relays the information between two legitimate parties. This can allow the adversary to bypass authentication or authorization mechanisms and gain access to restricted areas or resources. For example, an attacker could use a device to relay the signal from an RFID-tagged car key to the car’s ignition system and start the car without having the physical key.
Which of the following is MOST helpful to an IS auditor reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives?
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Risk assessment report
Audit recommendations
Enterprise architecture (EA) is the most helpful to an IS auditor reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization’s goals and strategic objectives. EA is a well-defined practice for conducting enterprise analysis, design, planning, and implementation, using a comprehensive approach at all times, for the successful development and execution of strategy1. EA provides a blueprint for an effective IT strategy and guides the controlled evolution of IT in a way that delivers business benefit in a cost-effective way2. By reviewing the EA, the IS auditor can evaluate how well the planned IT budget supports the business vision, strategy, objectives, and capabilities of the organization.
The other options are not as helpful as EA for reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization’s goals and strategic objectives. BIA is a process of determining the criticality of business activities and associated resource requirements to ensure operational resilience and continuity of operations during and after a business disruption3. BIA quantifies the impacts of disruptions on service delivery, risks to service delivery, and recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs)3. BIA is useful for developing strategies, solutions, and plans for business continuity and disaster recovery, but it does not directly address the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization’s goals and strategic objectives. Risk assessment report is a document that contains the results of performing a risk assessment or the formal output from the process of assessing risk4. Risk assessment is a method to identify, analyze, and control hazards and risks present in a situation or a place5. Risk assessment report is useful for identifying and mitigating potential threats and issues that are detrimental to the business or an enterprise, but it does not directly addressthe alignment of planned IT budget with the organization’s goals and strategic objectives. Audit recommendations are guidance that highlights actions to be taken by management6. When implemented, process risks should be mitigated, and performance should be enhanced6. Audit recommendations are useful for improving the quality and reliability of the information system and its outputs, but they do not directly address the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization’s goals and strategic objectives. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify whether the IT help desk is meeting service level agreements (SLAS)?
Review exception reports
Review IT staffing schedules.
Analyze help desk ticket logs
Conduct IT management interviews
The best way to identify whether the IT help desk is meeting service level agreements (SLAs) is A. Review exception reports. Exception reports are documents that highlight any deviations from the agreed service levels, such as breaches, delays, or failures. They can help the IT help desk to monitor their performance, identify root causes, and implement corrective actions. Reviewing exception reports can also help the IT help desk to communicate with the end users and stakeholders about any service issues and their resolution.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the scope of privacy concerns for an IT project?
Data ownership
Applicable laws and regulations
Business requirements and data flows
End-user access rights
When assessing the scope of privacy concerns for an IT project, the most important factor to consider is the applicable laws and regulations. These laws and regulations define the legal requirements for data privacy and protection that the project must comply with. They can vary greatly depending on the jurisdiction and the type of data being processed, and non-compliance can result in significant penalties123. While data ownership, business requirements and data flows, and end-user access rights are also important considerations, they are typically guided by these legal requirements.
A core system fails a week after a scheduled update, causing an outage that impacts service. Which of the following is MOST important for incident management to focus on when addressing the issue?
Analyzing the root cause of the outage to ensure the incident will not reoccur
Restoring the system to operational state as quickly as possible
Ensuring all resolution steps are fully documented prior to returning thesystem to service
Rolling back the unsuccessful change to the previous state
The most important thing for incident management to focus on when addressing an issue that causes an outage is restoring the system to operational state as quickly as possible. Incident management is the process of detecting, investigating, and resolving incidents that disrupt or degrade a service or system. An incident is an unplanned event that affects the normal functioning or quality of a service or system. An outage is a type of incident that causes a complete loss of service or system availability. The main goal of incident management is to restore the service or system to its operational state as quickly as possible, minimizing the impact on users and business operations.
*The other options are not as important as option B. Analyzing the root cause of the outage to ensure the incident will not re-occur is a valuable activity, but not the most important thing for incident management to focus on when addressing an issue that causes an outage. Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and eliminating the underlying factors that caused an incident or problem. Root cause analysis can help to prevent or reduce the likelihood of similar incidents or problems in the future. However, root cause analysis is usually performed after the incident has been resolved and the service or system has been restored. Ensuring all resolution steps are fully documented prior to returning the system to service is a good practice, but not the most important thing for incident management to focus on when addressing an issue that causes an outage. Documentation is a process of recording and maintaining information about an incident and its resolution steps. Documentation can help to improve communication, accountability, learning, and improvement within incident management. However, documentation should not delay or interfere with the restoration of the service or system. Rolling back the unsuccessful change to the previous state is a possible solution, but not the most important thing for incident management to focus on when addressing an issue that causes an outage. Rolling back is a process of reverting a change that has been applied to a service or system that caused an incident or problem. Rolling back can help to restore the service or system to its previous state before the change was made.
An organization has an acceptable use policy in place, but users do not formally acknowledge the policy. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk from this finding?
Lack of data for measuring compliance
Violation of industry standards
Noncompliance with documentation requirements
Lack of user accountability
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, such as networks, devices, and software. It aims to protect the organization’s assets, security, and productivity. An AUP should be formally acknowledged by users to ensure that they are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using the IT resources. Without formal acknowledgment, users may not be held accountable for violating the AUP or may claim ignorance of the policy. This can expose the organization to legal, regulatory, reputational, or operational risks. Lack of data for measuring compliance, violation of industry standards, and noncompliance with documentation requirements are also possible risks from not having users acknowledge the AUP, but they are less significant than lack of user accountability. References: Workable: Acceptable use policy template, Wikipedia: Acceptable use policy
Which of the following would be MOST effective in detecting the presence of an unauthorized wireless access point on an internal network?
Continuous network monitoring
Periodic network vulnerability assessments
Review of electronic access logs
Physical security reviews
The most effective method for detecting the presence of an unauthorized wireless access point on an internal network is A. Continuous network monitoring. This is because continuous network monitoring can capture and analyze all the wireless traffic in the network and identify any rogue or spoofed devices that may be connected to the network without authorization. Continuous network monitoring can also alert the system administrator of any suspicious or anomalous activities on the network and help to locate and remove the unauthorized wireless access point quickly.
Periodic network vulnerability assessments (B) can also help to detect unauthorized wireless access points, but they are not as effective as continuous network monitoring, because they are performed at fixed intervals and may miss some devices that are added or removed between the assessments. Review of electronic access logs © can provide some information about the devices that access the network, but they may not be able to detect devices that use fake or stolen credentials or devices that do not generate any logs. Physical security reviews (D) can help to prevent unauthorized physical access to the network ports or devices, but they may not be able to detect wireless access points that are hidden or disguised as legitimate devices.
TESTED 02 Aug 2025
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