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CRISC Exam Dumps - Isaca Certification Questions and Answers

Question # 504

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Question # 505

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

Options:

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Question # 506

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Question # 507

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 508

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 509

Which key performance indicator (KPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of disaster recovery scenarios identified

B.

Percentage of employees involved in the disaster recovery exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within the recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 510

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 511

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

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Question # 512

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Question # 513

An external data source has released an advisory about a critical vulnerability affecting a widely used software application. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Advise application owners to patch affected software

B.

Determine organizational exposure

C.

Notify senior management of the critical vulnerability

D.

Review the incident response plan

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Question # 514

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 515

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

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Question # 516

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 517

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Question # 518

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

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Question # 519

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

Options:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

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Question # 520

What is a risk practitioner ' s BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Question # 521

An organization is revising its IT security policy. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help ensure the policy is followed?

Options:

A.

Develop a policy socialization and awareness strategy.

B.

Implement technical controls to monitor for policy violations.

C.

Benchmark the policy against industry peers.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the old and new policy.

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Question # 522

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

Options:

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 523

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Question # 524

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 525

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 526

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

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Question # 527

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization ' s risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 528

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 529

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 530

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Question # 531

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

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Question # 532

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 533

IT management has deployed a major update to reduce the risk of system compromise. What is the BEST way to validate the effectiveness of this control?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Perform penetration testing.

C.

Run vulnerability scans.

D.

Review mean time to apply critical patches.

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Question # 534

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization ' s management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization ' s vendor management office

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Question # 535

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 536

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization ' s systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

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Question # 537

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

Options:

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

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Question # 538

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Question # 539

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Question # 540

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Question # 541

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

Options:

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 542

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

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Question # 543

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Question # 544

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Question # 545

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

Options:

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

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Question # 546

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 547

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Question # 548

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 549

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

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Question # 550

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

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Question # 551

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Question # 552

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 553

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

Options:

A.

Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks

B.

Number of downtime hours in business critical servers

C.

Number of patches made to anti-malware software

D.

Number of successful attacks by malicious software

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Oct 27, 2026
Questions: 1975
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